NEET 2026 May 03 Question Paper with Solutions

All 180 questions from the NEET 2026 (May 03) paper — Physics (45), Chemistry (45) and Biology (90) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.Physics PYQs 2026 Chemistry PYQs 2026 Biology PYQs 2026

Questions: 180
Physics: 45
Chemistry: 45
Biology: 90

Physics45 questions

Q1Single correctPhysics and Measurement

The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is :

(1)

3 \times 1 0^{8}

(2)

500

(3)

3 \times 1 0^{10}

(4)

400

Q2Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Young's Modulus	I. $\frac{Δ d}{Δ L} (\frac{L}{d})$
B. Compressibility	II. $\frac{F L}{A ( Δ L )}$
C. Bulk Modulus	III. $- \frac{1}{Δ P} (\frac{Δ V}{V})$
D. Poisson's Ratio	IV. $- P (\frac{V}{Δ V})$

(1)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(2)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(3)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q3Single correctElectronic Devices

The current I in the circuit shown below is :
(All diodes are ideal and identical)

Circuit: a 10 V cell (positive plate on the left) in the bottom wire drives current I upward through the left rail, which feeds four parallel branches between the left and right rails - a 4 ohm resistor in series with a diode pointing right, a 3 ohm resistor in series with a diode pointing left, a diode pointing right in series with a 2 ohm resistor, and a diode pointing left in series with a 5 ohm resistor.

(1)

\frac{5}{3} A

(2)

\frac{5}{9} A

(3)

\frac{1}{3} A

(4)

\frac{15}{2} A

Q4Single correctRotational Motion

The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is :

(1)

900

(2)

600

(3)

150

(4)

300

Q5Single correctOscillations and Waves

For a simple pendulum, having time period T, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time (t) is represented by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q6Single correctCurrent Electricity

A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2

Ω

. If the current in the circuit is 0

\cdot

6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is :

(1)

10 V

(2)

1 \cdot 2 V

(3)

12 V

(4)

10 \cdot 8 V

Q7Single correctKinetic Theory of Gases

A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 2

7^{\circ}

C. The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases

(\frac{v _{rms}^{Ar}}{v _{rms}^{Cl}})

is :
(Atomic mass of argon = 40

\cdot

0 u and molecular mass of chlorine = 70

\cdot

0 u)

(1)

\frac{7}{2}

(2)

\frac{7}{4}

(3)

\frac{7}{2}

(4)

\frac{2}{7}

Q8Single correctRay Optics

A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism (ABC) as shown in the figure. The refracted ray (QR) is parallel to its base (BC) and the angle of incidence (i) is 5

0^{\circ}

. Then the angle of deviation (

δ

) is :

$Equilateral prism ABC with apex A marked 60 degrees and the base BC hatched. A ray PQ strikes the face AB at Q, where the normal is drawn and the angle between the normal and PQ is marked i. Inside the prism the refracted ray QR runs horizontally, parallel to the base, to the point R on face AC, where the normal is also drawn, and leaves as the emergent ray RS sloping down to the right. PQ produced and RS produced backwards are dashed; the angle between them is marked delta.$

(1)

4 5^{\circ}

(2)

3 5^{\circ}

(3)

4 0^{\circ}

(4)

5 5^{\circ}

Q9Single correctDual Nature of Matter and Radiation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. $E = h ν$	I. de Broglie wavelength
B. Diffraction and Interference	II. Particle nature of light
C. $λ = h / p$	III. Wave nature of light
D. Compton effect	IV. Energy of photon

(1)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Q10Single correctAtoms and Nuclei

In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is

- 3 \cdot 4

eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately :
(Take 1 eV

= 1 \cdot 6 \times 1 0^{- 19}

e = 1 \cdot 6 \times 1 0^{- 19}

C and

\frac{1}{4 π ε _{0}} = 9 \times 1 0^{9}

m^{2}

C^{- 2}

)

(1)

2 \cdot 1 \times 1 0^{- 9} m

(2)

2 \cdot 1 \times 1 0^{- 8} m

(3)

2 \cdot 1 \times 1 0^{- 10} m

(4)

2 \cdot 1 \times 1 0^{- 11} m

Q11Single correctLaws of Motion

A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0

\cdot

12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m

s^{- 2}

is :
(

g = 10

s^{- 2}

)

(1)

2 \cdot 1

(2)

1 \cdot 8

(3)

1 \cdot 5

(4)

1 \cdot 2

Q12Single correctElectrostatics

Five capacitors of capacitances

C_{1} = C_{2} = C_{3} = C_{4} = 10

μ

F and

C_{5} = 2 \cdot 5

μ

F are connected as shown, along with a battery of 50 V. The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are :

(1)

5

μ

F, 125

μ

C on

C_{1}

C_{4}

and 25

μ

C on

C_{5}

(2)

5

μ

F, 125

μ

C on all capacitors

(3)

5

μ

F, 250

μ

C on all capacitors

(4)

4

μ

F, 250

μ

C on

C_{1}

C_{4}

and 125

μ

C on

C_{5}

Q13Single correctGravitation

The amount of work done to raise a mass 'm' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth 'R', will be :

(1)

2 mgR

(2)

m g \frac{R}{4}

(3)

m g R

(4)

m g \frac{R}{2}

Q14Single correctPhysics and Measurement

Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5

\cdot

580 kg is measured to be 9

\cdot

0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as

X \times 1 0^{3}

m^{- 3}

, where the value of X is :

(1)

7 \cdot 654

(2)

7 \cdot 6

(3)

7 \cdot 65

(4)

7 \cdot 7

Q15Single correctKinematics

The following plots show variation of velocity (v) with time (t), of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct ?

Five velocity-time plots labelled A to E, each with a t-axis and a v-axis that continues below the origin. A: a line falling from a positive velocity to the t-axis and then rising again. B: a line rising from the origin to a peak and falling back to the t-axis. C: a single straight line of negative slope starting at a positive velocity and continuing below the t-axis into negative values. D: a single straight line of positive slope starting at a negative velocity and rising above the t-axis. E: a curve falling from a positive velocity to touch the t-axis and curving upward again.

(1)

C only

(2)

D only

(3)

B only

(4)

A and E only

Q16Single correctWork, Energy and Power

The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0

\cdot

02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately :
(Consider mass of the bob = 20 g)

(1)

0 \cdot 2 m/s

(2)

1 \cdot 41 m/s

(3)

14 \cdot 1 m/s

(4)

2 \cdot 0 m/s

Q17Single correctWave Optics

In Young's double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength

λ

, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is

λ

, is K units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is

\frac{λ}{3}

will be :

(1)

\frac{K}{4}

(2)

K

(3)

2 K

(4)

\frac{K}{2}

Q18Single correctElectronic Devices

In the circuit shown below, the voltage appearing across the diode D will be of the form :

Series circuit: an a.c. source marked v i, whose waveform is drawn alongside as one full sine cycle, connects through a diode D in the top wire to a resistor R in the right-hand branch and back. The diode has its cathode bar on the left and its triangle pointing left, so it conducts from right to left. A pair of arrows above the diode marks the voltage v D across it.

(1)

Graph (1): v D against t, two positive half-sine humps meeting at the t-axis, then the axis runs flat.

(2)

Graph (2): v D against t, one complete sine cycle - a positive half-sine hump followed by a negative one - then the axis runs flat.

(3)

Graph (3): v D against t, two negative half-sine humps below the t-axis separated by a short flat stretch, then the axis runs flat.

(4)

Graph (4): v D against t, a single positive half-sine hump starting at the origin, after which the trace runs flat at zero along the t-axis, drawn as a heavier line.

Q19Single correctAlternating Current

An ac circuit contains a resistance of 1 k

Ω

, a capacitor of 0

\cdot

μ

F and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately :

(1)

13 \cdot 5 kHz

(2)

10 \cdot 1 kHz

(3)

20 \cdot 7 kHz

(4)

15 \cdot 9 kHz

Q20Single correctWave Optics

In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe.
A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy.
B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A is true and B is also true

(2)

A is false, but B is true

(3)

A is true, but B is false

(4)

Both A and B are false

Q21Single correctOscillations and Waves

For a travelling harmonic wave

y (x, t) = 2 \cdot 0 cos 2 π (10 t - 0 \cdot 0080 x + 0 \cdot 35)

, where x and y are in cm and t in s. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0

\cdot

5 m is :

(1)

0 \cdot 08 π rad

(2)

0 \cdot 8 π rad

(3)

8 π rad

(4)

0 \cdot 008 π rad

Q22Single correctLaws of Motion

The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively :

(1)

20 m s^{- 2}

tan^{- 1} (4/3)

with 8 N force

(2)

2 m s^{- 2}

tan^{- 1} (3/4)

with 6 N force

(3)

2 m s^{- 2}

tan^{- 1} (4/3)

with 8 N force

(4)

2 m s^{- 2}

tan^{- 1} (3/4)

with 8 N force

Q23Single correctElectrostatics

Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is :

(1)

0 \cdot 5 \times 1 0^{- 6} J

(2)

1 \cdot 0 J

(3)

1 \cdot 0 \times 1 0^{- 6} J

(4)

0 \cdot 5 J

Q24Single correctWork, Energy and Power

The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is :

(g = 9 \cdot 8 m/s^{2})

(1)

19 \cdot 6

(2)

39 \cdot 2

(3)

19 \cdot 6

(4)

39 \cdot 2

Q25Single correctUnits and Measurements

In a vernier callipers, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division of length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier callipers is :

(1)

0 \cdot 2

(2)

0 \cdot 01

(3)

0 \cdot 02

(4)

0 \cdot 1

Q26Single correctMotion in a Straight Line

When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times.
A. Person A has reaction time of

0 \cdot 20

s.
B. Person B has reaction time of

0 \cdot 22

s.
C. Person C has reaction time of

0 \cdot 18

s.
D. Person D has reaction time of

0 \cdot 19

s.
E. Person E has reaction time of

0 \cdot 21

s.
What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person ?

(1)

B > E > A > C > D

(2)

C > D > A > B > E

(3)

B > E > A > D > C

(4)

C > D > A > E > B

Q27Single correctCurrent Electricity

A uniform metallic wire having resistance

4 Ω

is bent to form a square loop (ABCD) (see figure). A resistance of

2 Ω

is connected between points B and D and a battery of

2

V is connected across points A and C as shown in the figure. Now the value of current (I) is :

(1)

2

(2)

8

(3)

4 \cdot 5

(4)

4

Q28Single correctCurrent Electricity

A room heater is rated

400

220

V. If the supply voltage drops to

200

V, what will be the power consumed (approximately) ?

(1)

200

(2)

400

(3)

331

(4)

121

Q29Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism

A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of

3 \cdot 14 \times 1 0^{- 3}

T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively :
(Take

μ_{0} = 4 π \times 1 0^{- 7}

T m/A)

(1)

2

10

m^{2}

(2)

2 \cdot 5

20

m^{2}

(3)

2

4

m^{2}

(4)

2 \cdot 5

2

m^{2}

Q30Single correctElectromagnetic Induction

A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude

0 \cdot 3

T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is 2 cm

s^{- 1}

, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be :

(1)

4 \cdot 8 \times 1 0^{- 4}

volt

(2)

1 \cdot 2 \times 1 0^{- 4}

volt

(3)

1 \cdot 3 \times 1 0^{- 4}

volt

(4)

1 \cdot 8 \times 1 0^{- 4}

volt

Q31Single correctNuclei

Four statements are given (A is mass number) :
A. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to

A^{1/3}

.
B. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A.
C. The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect.
D. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A and C are true, but B and D are false

(2)

B and C are true, but A and D are false

(3)

A and D are true, but B and C are false

(4)

B and D are true, but A and C are false

Q32Single correctNuclei

An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of

2 \cdot 29 \times 1 0^{17}

kg/

m^{3}

and mass of

19 \cdot 926 \times 1 0^{- 27}

kg. Its mass number A is approximately :
(Take

R_{0} = 1 \cdot 2 \times 1 0^{- 15}

4 π = 12 \cdot 56

)

(1)

12

(2)

20

(3)

16

(4)

19

Q33Single correctOscillations

Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum L, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as :
(Take

π^{2} = 9 \cdot 8

, and

g = 9 \cdot 8

s^{2}

)

(1)

0 \cdot 75

(2)

1 \cdot 5

(3)

2

(4)

1

Q34Single correctThermodynamics

An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be :

(1)

75

(2)

100

(3)

125

(4)

25

Q35Single correctSystem of Particles and Rotational Motion

A thin wire of length 'L' and linear mass density 'm' is bent into a circular ring (in x-y plane) with centre 'C' as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis yy' will be :

A circular ring in the x-y plane with its centre marked C. A vertical straight line touches the ring at the right-hand end of the horizontal radius; it is labelled y' at its upper end and y at its lower end. A dashed radius runs from C to that point of contact, and the x-axis continues to the right from there as an arrow labelled x.

(1)

\frac{3 m L ^{3}}{8 π}

(2)

\frac{3 m L ^{3}}{8 π ^{2}}

(3)

\frac{3 m L ^{2}}{8 π}

(4)

\frac{3 m L ^{2}}{8 π ^{2}}

Q36Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism

A galvanometer of resistance

100 Ω

gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range

0 - 10

A. The shunt required is :

(1)

0 \cdot 01 Ω

(2)

0 \cdot 10 Ω

(3)

1 \cdot 0 Ω

(4)

0 \cdot 001 Ω

Q37Single correctCurrent Electricity

In a metre bridge experiment (see figure), the positions of the cell, E, and galvanometer, G, are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer :

Metre bridge with the cell and galvanometer interchanged. Two L-shaped end strips and a straight middle strip form two gaps: R1 sits in the left gap and R2 in the right gap. The 1 m bridge wire runs along the bottom between the legs of the two end strips. The galvanometer G is connected over the top between the two end strips. The cell E hangs from the centre terminal of the middle strip; its lead runs down, hops over the bridge wire without touching it, and ends in the jockey, whose pointed contact rests on the bridge wire.

(1)

Only the left-sided deflection

(2)

There will be no deflection irrespective of the position of the jockey

(3)

Only the right-sided deflection

(4)

Both right-sided and left-sided deflection and at balance point, no deflection

Q38Single correctAlternating Current

The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value ?

(1)

\frac{1}{120}

(2)

\frac{1}{60}

(3)

\frac{1}{30}

(4)

\frac{1}{240}

Q39Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism

The figure given below shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius 'a' carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field (B) with distance (r) from the axis of the conductor in the region is :

A long straight solid wire drawn in side view as two parallel lines, with an ellipse across it showing the circular cross-section. A double-headed arrow inside the ellipse runs from the surface to the axis and is labelled a. Two arrows along the wire point to the right, the right-hand one labelled I, giving the direction of the steady current.

(1)

Graph (1): B against r. B rises along a straight line from the origin to a maximum at r = a, then falls off as 1/r. Dashed lines mark the maximum on the B-axis and r = a on the r-axis.

(2)

Graph (2): B against r. B is zero from the axis out to r = a, drawn as a heavy line along the r-axis, then steps vertically up to its maximum at r = a and falls off as 1/r. A dashed line marks the maximum on the B-axis.

(3)

Graph (3): B against r. B starts at a finite value on the B-axis, dips slightly, rises to a small peak at r = a, then falls off as 1/r. A dashed vertical line marks r = a.

(4)

Graph (4): B against r. B rises from the origin along an upward-curving path, steepening towards a maximum at r = a, then falls off as 1/r. Dashed lines mark the maximum on the B-axis and r = a on the r-axis.

Q40Single correctSemiconductor Electronics

Two statements are given below :
A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly.
B. This current is called reverse saturation current.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statements A and B are true

(2)

Statement A is true, but Statement B is false

(3)

Both Statements A and B are false

(4)

Statement A is false, but Statement B is true

Q41Single correctElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Which of the following statements are correct ?
A. Inside a conductor, the electrostatic field is zero.
B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density.
C. The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation.
D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point.
E. The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, B and D only

(2)

A, C and E only

(3)

A, C and D only

(4)

C, D and E only

Q42Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter

For a metal of work function

6 \cdot 6

eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect ?
(Take Planck's constant as

6 \cdot 6 \times 1 0^{- 34}

J s)

(1)

100

(2)

150

(3)

200

(4)

50

Q43Single correctRay Optics and Optical Instruments

In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens after refraction :

(1)

passes through 2F, which is the radius of curvature of the lens.

(2)

appears to diverge from the first principal focus.

(3)

emerges parallel to the principal axis.

(4)

passes through the second principal focus.

Q44Single correctMechanical Properties of Fluids

A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm. How deep can it go below the water surface ?
(Consider the density of water

= 1000

m^{- 3}

, 1 atm

= 1 \times 1 0^{5}

Pa and gravitational acceleration

g = 10

s^{2}

)

(1)

990

(2)

9900

(3)

99

(4)

9000

Q45Single correctElectromagnetic Waves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Electromagnetic wave)	List II (Production)
A. Microwave	I. Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from a higher energy level to a lower energy level
B. Visible light	II. Radioactive decay of nucleus
C. Gamma rays	III. Vibration of atoms and molecules
D. Infra-red rays	IV. Klystron valve or magnetron valve

(1)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Chemistry45 questions

Q46Single correctAmines

Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines :
A.

(i) LiAlH_{4}; (ii) H_{2} O

Sn + HCl

H_{2} / Ni

Na(Hg)/C_{2} H_{5} OH

Br_{2} / aq. NaOH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

B, D and E only

(2)

A, C and D only

(3)

A, D and E only

(4)

A, B and C only

Q47Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Transition metal/ compound/ complex)	List II (Catalytic Role)
A. $V_{2} O_{5}$	I. Preparation of ammonia from $N_{2} / H_{2}$ mixture
B. $Fe$	II. Polymerisation of alkynes
C. $PdCl_{2}$	III. Preparation of $H_{2} SO_{4}$ from $SO_{2}$
D. Ni complex	IV. Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal

(1)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(3)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(4)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q48Single correctThermodynamics

Consider the following reaction :

2 A (g) + B (g) \to 2 D (g)

Δ U^{⊖} = - 10 kJ mol^{- 1}

and

Δ S^{⊖} = - 44 J K^{- 1}

at 298 K.
Identify the correct option with

Δ G^{⊖}

for the reaction and spontaneity of the reaction at 298 K.
(Given : R =

8 \cdot 31 J mol^{- 1} K^{- 1}

)

(1)

- 1 \cdot 635 kJ mol^{- 1}

, spontaneous

(2)

- 0 \cdot 63568 kJ mol^{- 1}

, spontaneous

(3)

+ 0 \cdot 63568 kJ mol^{- 1}

, non-spontaneous

(4)

+ 1 \cdot 635 kJ mol^{- 1}

, non-spontaneous

Q49Single correctStructure of Atom

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Quantum Numbers)	List II (Orbital)
A. $n = 2, l = 1$	I. 3d
B. $n = 4, l = 0$	II. 2p
C. $n = 5, l = 3$	III. 4s
D. $n = 3, l = 2$	IV. 5f

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(4)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q50Single correctEquilibrium

In a qualitative analysis,

Bi^{3 +}

is detected by appearance of precipitate of

BiO(OH)(s)

. Calculate pH when the following equilibrium exists at 298 K :

BiO(OH)(s) ⇌ BiO^{+} (aq) + OH^{-} (aq)

K = 4 \times 1 0^{- 10}

(Given :

lo g 2 = 0 \cdot 3010

)

(1)

8 \cdot 714

(2)

4 \cdot 699

(3)

5 \cdot 286

(4)

9 \cdot 301

Q51Single correctBiomolecules

The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is

(1)

RNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases.

(2)

DNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases.

(3)

RNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases.

(4)

DNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases.

Q52Single correctOrganic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques

The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is :

(1)

CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} OH

and

CH_{3} -CH(OH)-CH_{3}

(2)

CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} CH_{2} CH_{3}

and

(CH_{3})_{2} CHCH_{2} CH_{3}

(3)

$\text{H}_3\text{C-CO-CH}_3$ and $\text{H}_3\text{C-CH}_2\text{-CHO}$

(4)

CH_{3} OCH_{2} CH_{2} CH_{3}

and

CH_{3} CH_{2} OCH_{2} CH_{3}

Q53Single correctCoordination Compounds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Complex)	List II (Type of isomerism)
A. $[Pt(NH_{3})_{2} Cl_{2}]$	I. Optical
B. $[Co(en)_{3}]^{3 +}$	II. Solvate
C. $[Co(NH_{3})_{5} NO_{2}] Cl_{2}$	III. Geometrical
D. $[Cr(H_{2} O)_{6}] Cl_{3}$	IV. Linkage

(1)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q54Single correctChemical Kinetics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Order of reaction)	List II (Unit of rate constant)
A. Zero order	I. $mol^{- 1} L s^{- 1}$
B. First order	II. $mol^{- 2} L^{2} s^{- 1}$
C. Second order	III. $s^{- 1}$
D. Third order	IV. $mol L^{- 1} s^{- 1}$

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q55Single correctOrganic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques

The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :

CH_{3} -CH_{2} -CH (C_{2} H_{5}) -CH_{2} -CH (CH_{3}) -CH_{2} -CH_{3}

(1)

3-ethyl-5-methylheptane

(2)

2,4-diethylhexane

(3)

3-methyl-5-ethylheptane

(4)

3,5-diethylhexane

Q56Single correctStructure of Atom

A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is

4 \cdot 42 \times 1 0^{- 19}

J, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second ?

(1)

2 \cdot 71 \times 1 0^{19}

(2)

4 \cdot 06 \times 1 0^{19}

(3)

27 \cdot 2 \times 1 0^{19}

(4)

1 \cdot 35 \times 1 0^{19}

Q57Single correctHydrogen

Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form :

(1)

CO

and

H_{2} O

(2)

CO_{2}

and

H_{2}

(3)

CO

and

H_{2}

(4)

CO_{2}

and

H_{2} O

Q58Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Compound P (

C_{8} H_{8} O

) gives a red orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent and it does not reduce Fehling's reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, P gives an aromatic product Q that produces effervescence on treating with aq.

NaHCO_{3}

. Compounds P and Q, respectively, are :

(1)

P is acetophenone: a benzene ring bonded to a carbonyl carbon that carries a double-bonded O above it and a CH3 group. Q is phenylglyoxylic acid: a benzene ring bonded to a carbonyl carbon with a double-bonded O above, joined to a second carbon with a double-bonded O below and an OH group.

(2)

P is 4-methylbenzaldehyde: a benzene ring with H3C at one position and, para to it, a carbonyl carbon carrying a double-bonded O above and an H. Q is 4-methylbenzoic acid: the same ring with H3C, and para to it a carbonyl carbon with a double-bonded O above and an OH.

(3)

P is 4-methylbenzaldehyde: a benzene ring with H3C at one position and, para to it, a carbonyl carbon carrying a double-bonded O above and an H. Q is terephthalic acid: a benzene ring with HOOC written at one position and COOH para to it.

(4)

P is acetophenone: a benzene ring bonded to a carbonyl carbon that carries a double-bonded O above it and a CH3 group. Q is benzoic acid: a benzene ring with COOH written at one position.

Q59Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. $C_{2} H_{4}$	I. 3 $σ$ bonds, 2 $π$ bonds
B. $C_{2} H_{2}$	II. 3 $σ$ bonds, one lone pair
C. $CH_{4}$	III. 4 $σ$ bonds
D. $NH_{3}$	IV. 5 $σ$ bonds, 1 $π$ bond

(1)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(2)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(3)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q60Single correctAmines

The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z.

C_{2} H_{5} Cl X Z

C_{2} H_{5} -CO-NH_{2} Br_{2}, NaOH Y CHCl_{3} / ethanolic KOH Δ Z

X and Z, respectively, are :

(1)

X = AgCN; Z = C_{2} H_{5} NC

(2)

X = KCN; Z = C_{2} H_{5} CN

(3)

X = AgCN; Z = C_{2} H_{5} CN

(4)

X = KCN; Z = C_{2} H_{5} NC

Q61Single correctSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry

The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5

\cdot

4 g of urea is :
(Given : Molar mass of urea : 60 g mo

l^{- 1}

N_{A}

6 \cdot 022 \times 1 0^{23}

particles mo

l^{- 1}

)

(1)

1 \cdot 084 \times 1 0^{23}

(2)

1 \cdot 084 \times 1 0^{22}

(3)

2 \cdot 168 \times 1 0^{22}

(4)

2 \cdot 168 \times 1 0^{23}

Q62Single correctThe p-Block Elements (Group 15)

Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

(1)

Nitrogen can form

p π

p π

multiple bonds with itself.

(2)

P(C_{2} H_{5})_{3}

and

As(C_{6} H_{5})_{3}

form

d π

d π

bond with transition metals.

(3)

Phosphorus, arsenic and antimony show catenation property.

(4)

Nitrogen can form

d π

p π

bond with oxygen.

Q63Single correctCoordination Compounds

Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand ?

(1)

Ethane-1,2-diamine

(2)

Ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion

(3)

Thiocyanate

(4)

Oxalate

Q64Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is :

(1)

P < Si < Be < Mg < Na

(2)

P < Si < Na < Mg < Be

(3)

P < Mg < Be < Si < Na

(4)

Be < Si < P < Mg < Na

Q65Single correctAlcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A.	I. (i) oleum, (ii) NaOH, $Δ$ ; (iii) $H^{+}$
B. $CH_{3} COOH \to CH_{3} CH_{2} OH$	II. (i) $O_{2}$ , (ii) $H_{2} O / H^{+}$
C. $CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} OH \to CH_{3} -CH(OH)-CH_{3}$	III. (i) $CH_{3} OH$ , $H^{+}$ , (ii) $H_{2}$ , catalyst
D.	IV. (i) conc. $H_{2} SO_{4}$ , $Δ$ , (ii) $H^{+} / H_{2} O$

(1)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(2)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(4)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Q66Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements

Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because :

(1)

After losing one more electron, it acquires

4 f^{14}

electronic configuration.

(2)

Its nearest inert gas is Radon.

(3)

Its atomic number is 61.

(4)

After losing one more electron, it acquires

4 f^{0}

electronic configuration.

Q67Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes

In the following reaction sequence, X and Z respectively are :

CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} -OH + PCl_{5} \to CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} Cl + X + HCl

CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} Cl alc. KOH Δ Y HBr (C_{6} H_{5} CO)_{2} O_{2} Z

(1)

$$\text{X = POCl}_3;\ \text{Z = CH}_3\text{-CHBr-CH}_3$ (2-bromopropane)$

(2)

X = POCl_{3}; Z = CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} -Br

(1-bromopropane)

(3)

$$\text{X = H}_3\text{PO}_3;\ \text{Z = CH}_3\text{-CHBr-CH}_3$ (2-bromopropane)$

(4)

X = H_{3} PO_{3}; Z = CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} -Br

(1-bromopropane)

Q68Single correctCoordination Compounds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Complex/ion)	List II (Shape/geometry)
A. $[Pt(Cl)_{2} (NH_{3})_{2}]$	I. Octahedral
B. $[Co(NH_{3})_{6}] Cl_{3}$	II. Trigonal bipyramidal
C. $[NiCl_{4}]^{2 -}$	III. Square planar
D. $[Fe(CO)_{5}]$	IV. Tetrahedral

(1)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(4)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Q69Single correctOrganic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques

The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is :

(1)

Aldehyde

(2)

Phenolic

(3)

Carboxylic acid

(4)

Alcohol

Q70Single correctOrganic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence.

C_{6} H_{6} + CH_{3} Cl Anhyd. AlCl_{3} W dil. HNO_{3} / dil. H_{2} SO_{4} warm X + Y

The suitable method that can be used for the separation of products X and Y is :

(1)

Fractional distillation

(2)

Sublimation

(3)

Differential extraction

(4)

Continuous extraction

Q71Single correctSolutions

Identify the correct statements :
A. The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass :

60 g mol^{- 1}

) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m.
B. The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass :

40 g mol^{- 1}

) in 450 mL of solution is 0.278 M at 298 K.
C. Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water.
D. The solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure.
E. For a binary mixture of A and B, the number of moles of A and B are

n_{A}

and

n_{B}

respectively. The mole fraction of B will be

x_{B} = \frac{n _{A}}{n _{A} + n _{B}}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, B and C only

(2)

A and B only

(3)

A and C only

(4)

A, D and E only

Q72Single correctOrganic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques

During Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from :

(1)

ionic form to ionic form

(2)

covalent form to ionic form

(3)

covalent form to covalent form

(4)

ionic form to covalent form

Q73Single correctElectrochemistry

A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is :
(Given : Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mo

l^{- 1}

;
1 F = 96487 C mo

l^{- 1}

)

(1)

1.7018

(2)

0.2938

(3)

2.4036

(4)

0.5876

Q74Single correctThermodynamics

At a certain temperature, T (K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is :

(1)

400 J

(2)

- 300 J

(3)

700 J

(4)

300 J

Q75Single correctChemical Kinetics

For a certain reaction R

⟶

Product, the plot of concentration [R] v/s time has a negative slope as shown. The order of reaction is :

Graph of [R] concentration against time. Plain axes; the y-axis is marked [R0] at its top. A single straight line of constant negative slope starts at [R0] on the y-axis and falls steadily to the right, stopping partway across the plot. It is annotated k = - slope. The time axis carries an arrow pointing right.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2.5

Q76Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Identify the correct statement about Cl

F_{3}

from the following options :

(1)

It has T-shaped geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.

(2)

It has T-shaped geometry with three lone pairs on Cl atom.

(3)

It has a trigonal pyramidal geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.

(4)

It has a planar trigonal geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.

Q77Single correctEnvironmental / Qualitative Inorganic Analysis

In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute

H_{2} S O_{4}

was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned the blue litmus paper red. Identify the correct anion from the following :

(1)

Sulphide,

S^{2 -}

(2)

Sulphate, SO

_{4}^{2 -}

(3)

Acetate, C

H_{3} CO O^{-}

(4)

Carbonate, CO

_{3}^{2 -}

Q78Single correctEquilibrium

At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X

^{-}

and HX,

K_{a}

for X

^{-}

1 0^{- 10}

. What is the pH of the buffer solution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q79Single correctElectrochemistry

Calculate emf of the half cell given below :

Pt (s) ∣ H_{2} (g) 2 atm ∣ HCl (aq, 0.02 M)

E_{H^{+} / H_{2}}^{\circ} = 0 V

(Given :

\frac{2.303 RT}{F} = 0.059

,
log 2 = 0.3010)

(1)

- 0.109

(2)

0.035

(3)

- 0.035

(4)

0.109

Q80Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements

The calculated 'spin-only' magnetic moment of T

i^{2 +}

d^{2}

) is :

(1)

5.92

(2)

3.87

(3)

2.84

(4)

4.90

Q81Single correctThe p-Block Elements

Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

(1)

Carbon has the ability to form p

π

-p

π

multiple bond with itself.

(2)

l_{3}

(E = B and Al) is a monomer when E = B and a dimer when E = Al.

(3)

The order of catenation property of Group 14 elements is C >> Si > Ge

\approx

Sn.

(4)

Oxygen exhibits only

- 2

oxidation state.

Q82Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

The correct formal charges on oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively are :
(In the structure shown, oxygen 1 is the central atom; oxygen 2 is joined to it by a double bond and oxygen 3 by a single bond.)

Bent ozone structure. The apex oxygen, circled 1, carries one lone pair of electrons drawn as two dots above it. It is joined by a double bond sloping down to the left to an oxygen circled 2, which carries two lone pairs, and by a single bond sloping down to the right to an oxygen circled 3, which carries three lone pairs.

(1)

- 1, 0, + 1

(2)

0, + 1, - 1

(3)

0, 0, 0

(4)

+ 1, 0, - 1

Q83Single correctEquilibrium

Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change that is observed at the alkaline pH close to the equivalence point during this titration is :

(1)

pinkish red to yellow

(2)

yellow to pinkish red

(3)

pink to colourless

(4)

colourless to pink

Q84Single correctRedox Reactions / Mole Concept

When 1 d

m^{3}

of C

O_{2}

gas is passed over hot coke, the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes 1.4 d

m^{3}

. The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is :

(1)

0.8 d

m^{3}

of CO, 0.8 d

m^{3}

of C

O_{2}

(2)

0.8 d

m^{3}

of CO, 0.6 d

m^{3}

of C

O_{2}

(3)

0.6 d

m^{3}

of CO, 0.8 d

m^{3}

of C

O_{2}

(4)

0.6 d

m^{3}

of CO, 0.4 d

m^{3}

of C

O_{2}

Q85Single correctAmines / Hydrocarbons

The major product Z formed in the following sequence of reactions is :

C_{2} H_{6} Cl_{2} UV light X (monochlorinated product) NH_{3} Y (i) NaNO_{2} / HCl (ii) H_{2} O Z

(1)

C_{2} H_{5} NO_{2}

(2)

C_{2} H_{5} - N = N - OH

(3)

C_{2} H_{5} OH

(4)

C_{2} H_{5} NH_{2}

Q86Single correctChemical Kinetics

Given below is an expression for the rate constant k of a first order reaction occurring at a certain temperature, T (K).

ln k = 14.34 - \frac{1.25 \times 1 0 ^{4}}{T}

The energy of activation in kcal mo

l^{- 1}

for the reaction is :
(Given : k is in

s^{- 1}

, R = 1.987 cal mo

l^{- 1}

K^{- 1}

)

(1)

24.84

(2)

14.34

(3)

18.63

(4)

12.42

Q87Single correctEquilibrium

Given below are certain reactions. Identify the reaction for which K

_{p} \neq =

K_{c}

(1)

H_{2}

O (g) + CO (g)

⇌

H_{2}

(g) + C

O_{2}

(g)

(2)

N_{2}

(g) + 3

H_{2}

(g)

⇌

H_{3}

(g)

(3)

H_{2}

(g) +

I_{2}

(g)

⇌

2HI (g)

(4)

N_{2}

(g) +

O_{2}

(g)

⇌

2NO (g)

Q88Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity / p-Block

Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

(1)

The largest and the smallest species among Mg, M

g^{2 +}

, Al and A

l^{3 +}

are Al and M

g^{2 +}

, respectively.

(2)

The IUPAC name of the element with atomic number 107 is Unnilseptium.

(3)

The similarity in behaviour of Li with Mg is referred to as 'diagonal relationship'.

(4)

The oxidation state and covalency of Al in [AlCl(

H_{2} O)_{5}]^{2 +}

are 3 and 6 respectively.

Q89Single correctSolutions

Mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with negative deviation from Raoult's law due to :

(1)

increase in escaping tendency of molecules of each component.

(2)

formation of hydrogen bonding between acetone and chloroform.

(3)

stronger intermolecular forces between chloroform molecules than those between chloroform and acetone molecules.

(4)

repulsive forces.

Q90Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids / Haloarenes

The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products X and Y of the following reactions, respectively, are :

Two reaction schemes. In the first, a benzene ring plus 6Cl2 reacts over anhydrous AlCl3 in the dark and cold, shown by a reaction arrow, to give X. In the second, a benzene ring plus 3Cl2 reacts under UV at 500 K to give Y.

(1)

3 and 3

(2)

6 and 3

(3)

6 and 6

(4)

3 and 6

Biology90 questions

Q91Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root ?

(1)

The root cap zone

(2)

The region of meristematic activity

(3)

The region of elongation

(4)

The region of maturation

Q92Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

In which one of the following, the ovules are

n o t

enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed ?

(1)

F u na r ia

(2)

P in u s

(3)

S e l a g in e ll a

(4)

W o l ff ia

Q93Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

In the

l a c

operon, the

z

gene codes for :

(1)

permease

(2)

transacetylase

(3)

beta-galactosidase

(4)

the repressor of

l a c

operon

Q94Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called :

(1)

Biofortification

(2)

Bioremediation

(3)

Bioprospecting

(4)

Biomagnification

Q95Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Genetically modified organism	I. $A g ro ba c t er i u m$ $t u m e f a c i e n s$
B. Thermostable DNA polymerase	II. Bt cotton
C. Ti plasmid	III. $T h er m u s$ $a q u a t i c u s$
D. pBR322	IV. $E sc h er i c hia$ $co l i$

(1)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(2)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(4)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Q96Single correctEcosystem

Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Productivity	I. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses
B. Net primary productivity	II. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers
C. Gross primary productivity	III. Rate of biomass production
D. Secondary productivity	IV. Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis

(1)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(4)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Q97Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes ?

(1)

The present net species extinction rate is zero.

(2)

The current species extinction rate is nearly 10 times faster than that in previous episodes.

(3)

The present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.

(4)

The current species extinction rates are far lower than those in previous episodes.

Q98Single correctBiomolecules

Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure ?

(1)

Secondary structure

(2)

Tertiary structure

(3)

Primary structure

(4)

Quaternary structure

Q99Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is :

(1)

to make the leaf impermeable to fungal spores.

(2)

to transport water.

(3)

to perform photosynthesis.

(4)

to minimize water loss during water stress.

Q100Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction :

(1)

Extension

\to

Annealing

\to

Denaturation

(2)

Annealing

\to

Denaturation

\to

Extension

(3)

Denaturation

\to

Extension

\to

Annealing

(4)

Denaturation

\to

Annealing

\to

Extension

Q101Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. $G_{1}$ phase	I. Actual cell division occurs
B. S phase	II. Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA
C. $G_{2}$ phase	III. Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles
D. M phase	IV. Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues

(1)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q102Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Which of the following statements are correct ?
A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss.
B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans.
C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake.
D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species.
E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, B and E only

(2)

A, B and D only

(3)

C, D and E only

(4)

B, C and D only

Q103Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit ?
A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions - promoter, structural gene and terminator.
B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene.
C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase.
D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands.
E. The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, B, C and D only

(2)

A, C, D and E only

(3)

B, C, D and E only

(4)

A, B, C, D and E

Q104Single correctBiological Classification / Plant Kingdom

Which one of the following statements is

n o t

true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature ?

(1)

Biological names are generally in Latin.

(2)

Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined or printed in italics.

(3)

The specific epithet in the biological name starts with a small letter.

(4)

The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus.

Q105Single correctEcosystem

Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Decomposition	I. Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous colloidal substance
B. Detritus	II. Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil
C. Mineralisation	III. Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances
D. Humification	IV. Dead remains of plants and animals including faecal matter

(1)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(4)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Q106Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis ?

(1)

Centrosome

(2)

Chromatin

(3)

Nucleolus

(4)

Kinetochore

Q107Single correctRespiration in Plants

2 (C_{51} H_{98} O_{6}) + 145 O_{2} \to 102 CO_{2} + 98 H_{2} O + energy

The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation, would be :

(1)

Between 0.5 and 0.95

(2)

Less than 0.5

(3)

1.0

(4)

Between 1.25 and 2

Q108Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Incomplete dominance	I. Human skin colour
B. Co-dominance	II. Inheritance of flower colour in $A n t i rr hin u m$ sp.
C. Pleiotropy	III. Phenylketonuria disease in human
D. Polygenic inheritance	IV. ABO blood groups

(1)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Q109Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence.
A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases.
B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe.
C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane.
D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, B, D, C, E

(2)

A, D, B, E, C

(3)

A, E, C, B, D

(4)

A, E, B, C, D

Q110Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix ?
A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.
B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins.
C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine.
D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome.
E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, C and E only

(2)

B, D and E only

(3)

C, D and E only

(4)

A, B and D only

Q111Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following :
A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I.
B.

C_{4}

plants use the

C_{3}

pathway of

CO_{2}

fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway.
C. In

C_{4}

plants, photorespiration does not occur.
D.

C_{3}

plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy.
E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis.
Choose the answer from the following given below :

(1)

B and C only

(2)

B only

(3)

B and E only

(4)

A and D only

Q112Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in a correct sequence.
A. Digestion of cell walls.
B. Isolation of naked protoplasts.
C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast.
D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants.
E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

D, A, B, C, E

(2)

E, B, A, D, C

(3)

D, B, A, E, C

(4)

E, A, B, C, D

Q113Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Conjunctive tissue	I. Specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells
B. Casparian strips	II. Endodermal cells rich in starch
C. Subsidiary cells	III. Tissue between xylem and phloem
D. Starch sheath	IV. Endodermal cells with suberin deposition

(1)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q114Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Which one of the following is

n o t

a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation ?

(1)

New cell wall deposition

(2)

Cell enlargement

(3)

Increased vacuolation

(4)

Large conspicuous nuclei

Q115Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Growth Regulator)	List II (Function/Effect)
A. 2,4-D	I. Brewing industry
B. G $A_{3}$	II. Stimulation of stomatal closure
C. Kinetin	III. Herbicide
D. ABA	IV. Nutrient mobilisation

(1)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(4)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Q116Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is :

(1)

Hexokinase

(2)

PEP carboxylase

(3)

RuBP carboxylase

-

oxygenase

(4)

Carboxypeptidase

Q117Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway ?

(1)

18 ATP and 12 NADPH

(2)

12 ATP and 18 NADPH

(3)

24 ATP and 18 NADPH

(4)

6 ATP and 12 NADPH

Q118Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of Solanaceae family ?

(1)

\oplus

⚥

K_{(5)} C_{(5)} A_{5} \underline{G}_{(2)}

(2)

\oplus

⚥

K_{(5)} \overline{C_{(5)} A_{5}} \underline{G}_{(2)}

(3)

\oplus

⚥

K_{5} C_{5} A_{5} \underline{G}_{(2)}

(4)

\oplus

⚥

K_{5} \overline{C_{(5)} A_{5}} \underline{G}_{(2)}

Q119Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Which of the following is an

in

s i t u

conservation method ?

(1)

Sacred Groves

(2)

Wildlife Safari Parks

(3)

Botanical Gardens

(4)

Seed Banks

Q120Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Which of the following statements are

n o t

true regarding restriction endonucleases ?
A. They are called molecular scissors.
B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in

E .

co l i .

C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites.
D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments.
E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.

(1)

A and B only

(2)

A and E only

(3)

D and E only

(4)

C and D only

Q121Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

In racemose inflorescence,

(1)

the main axis terminates in a flower

(2)

flowers are solitary

(3)

the growth is limited

(4)

flowers are borne in an acropetal succession

Q122Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis :
A. Microspore tetrads
B. Sporogenous tissue
C. Pollen grains
D. Pollen mother cells

(1)

D, A, C, B

(2)

B, D, A, C

(3)

B, D, C, A

(4)

A, D, C, B

Q123Single correctBiomolecules

Identify the correct statements about biomolecules.
A. Lipids are generally water soluble.
B. Proteins are polypeptides.
C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.
D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.
E. Almost all enzymes are proteins.

(1)

B, D and E only

(2)

B, C and E only

(3)

A, B and C only

(4)

C, D and E only

Q124Single correctReproduction (placed under Botany Q-band)

Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees ?
A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg, develops as a female (queen or worker).
B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis.
C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female.
D. Males produce sperms by meiosis.
E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system.

(1)

A, B, C and E only

(2)

B, C, D and E only

(3)

A, B, C and D only

(4)

A, B, D and E only

Q125Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena ?

(1)

Redifferentiation

(2)

Elasticity

(3)

Dedifferentiation

(4)

Plasticity

Q126Single correctBiomolecules

Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids ?
A. They are substituted methanes.
B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid.
C. Valine is a neutral amino acid.
D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid.

(1)

C and D only

(2)

B and C only

(3)

A and C only

(4)

A and B only

Q127Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

"The Evil Quartet" of biodiversity loss includes which of the following ?

(1)

Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Air pollution; Co-extinctions

(2)

Habitat loss and fragmentation; Air pollution; Water pollution; Co-extinctions

(3)

Habitat loss and fragmentation; Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Co-extinctions

(4)

Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Soil pollution; Co-extinctions

Q128Single correctRespiration in Plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Process)	List II (Location)
A. Glycolysis	I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
B. ETS	II. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Accumulation of protons	III. Cytoplasm
D. Krebs' cycle	IV. Intermembrane space

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Q129Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Which one of the following is a triploid cell ?

(1)

Synergid

(2)

Central cell

(3)

Zygote

(4)

Primary endosperm cell

Q130Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma ?

(1)

Autogamy

(2)

Xenogamy

(3)

Geitonogamy

(4)

Cleistogamy

Q131Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Placentation)	List II (Example)
A. Marginal	I. Mustard
B. Axile	II. Pea
C. Parietal	III. Marigold
D. Basal	IV. Lemon

(1)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Q132Single correctBiological Classification

The main criteria used for the Five Kingdom Classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969) included :
A. Cell structure
B. Body organization
C. Presence of flagellum
D. Reproduction
E. Phylogenetic relationships

(1)

A, B, C, D and E

(2)

B, C and D only

(3)

A, B, D and E only

(4)

A, B and E only

Q133Single correctBiomolecules

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Trypsin	I. Intercellular ground substance
B. Morphine	II. Lectin
C. Concanavalin A	III. Enzyme
D. Collagen	IV. Alkaloid

(1)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Q134Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization ?
A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors.
B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis.
C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light.
D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light.

(1)

B and D only

(2)

A and B only

(3)

B and C only

(4)

A and D only

Q135Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule ?

(1)

Thalassemia

(2)

Sickle-cell anaemia

(3)

Phenylketonuria

(4)

Haemophilia

Q136Single correctChemical Coordination and Integration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A.. Cortisol	I.. Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands
B.. Aldosterone	II.. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
C.. Cholecystokinin	III.. Stimulates reabsorption of $Na^{+}$ and water from renal tubule
D.. Progesterone	IV.. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice

(1)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(2)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q137Single correctExcretory Products and their Elimination

Arrange the following events occurring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order :
A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate.
B. Reabsorption of

Na^{+}

and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone.
C. Fall in Glomerular filtration rate.
D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone.
E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, C, E, B, D

(2)

C, A, B, D, E

(3)

A, D, B, E, C

(4)

C, E, D, B, A

Q138Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order.
A. Diffusion of

O_{2}

and

CO_{2}

between blood and tissues
B. Diffusion of

O_{2}

and

CO_{2}

across alveolar membrane
C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and

CO_{2}

rich alveolar air is released out
D. Cellular respiration
E. Transport of gases by the blood
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, B, C, D, E

(2)

E, A, C, D, B

(3)

C, B, E, A, D

(4)

C, A, B, E, D

Q139Single correctHuman Health and Disease

The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order.
A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells.
B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood.
C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs.
D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood.
E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

E, D, B, A, C

(2)

A, B, C, D, E

(3)

C, A, B, D, E

(4)

E, C, D, B, A

Q140Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards

(1)

Ampicillin and tetracycline

(2)

Ampicillin

(3)

Tetracycline

(4)

Gentamicin

Q141Single correctBiomolecules

The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes :

X - Y E X - Y + C = C

(Substrate) (Product) (Product)
Identify the enzyme class 'E' from the following options :

(1)

Transferases

(2)

Isomerases

(3)

Lyases

(4)

Ligases

Q142Single correctNeural Control and Coordination

The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on :

(1)

Schwann cell

(2)

Pre-synaptic membrane

(3)

Myelin sheath

(4)

Post-synaptic membrane

Q143Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively ?

(1)

25%

(2)

(3)

75%

(4)

50%

Q144Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

Match List I with List II :

List I (Respiratory Volume)	List II (Capacity in mL)
A.. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume)	I.. 2500 $-$ 3000 mL
B.. RV (Residual Volume)	II.. 500 mL
C.. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)	III.. 1000 $-$ 1100 mL
D.. TV (Tidal Volume)	IV.. 1100 $-$ 1200 mL

(1)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(4)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q145Single correctEvolution

Which of the following is

n o t

an example of convergent evolution ?

(1)

Flippers of penguins and dolphins

(2)

Eyes of octopuses and mammals

(3)

Fore limbs of whales and bats

(4)

Wings of butterflies and birds

Q146Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of :
A. Bulging eyes
B. Vocal sacs
C. Webbed digits in feet
D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs
E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

B and C only

(2)

C and E only

(3)

A and B only

(4)

B and D only

Q147Single correctAnimal Kingdom

A group of researchers procured some fish-like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed :
A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage.
B. Ectoparasitic, as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth.
C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present.
Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters ?

(1)

Scoliodon sp.

(2)

Petromyzon sp.

(3)

Exocoetus sp.

(4)

Branchiostoma sp.

Q148Single correctEvolution

Choose the correct answer from options given below :

List I	List II
A.. About 65 mya	I.. Jawless fish probably evolved
B.. About 500 mya	II.. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
C.. About 350 mya	III.. Seaweeds and few plants probably existed
D.. About 320 mya	IV.. Invertebrates were formed and became active

(1)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(4)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Q149Single correctReproductive Health

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A.. Progestasert	I.. Barrier made of rubber used by females
B.. Multiload 375	II.. Oral contraceptive
C.. Diaphragm	III.. Hormone releasing IUD
D.. Saheli	IV.. Copper releasing IUD

(1)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Q150Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu.mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately ?

(1)

300 - 500/cu.mm and 1200 - 1500/cu.mm, respectively

(2)

160 - 240/cu.mm and 1600 - 2000/cu.mm, respectively

(3)

300 - 500/cu.mm and 500 - 700/cu.mm, respectively

(4)

100 - 120/cu.mm and 160 - 200/cu.mm, respectively

Q151Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Drug)	List II (Effect)
A.. Nicotine	I.. Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy
B.. Morphine	II.. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation
C.. Heroin	III.. Effective sedative and painkiller
D.. Cocaine	IV.. A depressant; slows down body function

(1)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(2)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Q152Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

The human protein named

α

-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of

(1)

Emphysema

(2)

Alzheimer's disease

(3)

Rheumatoid arthritis

(4)

Cystic fibrosis

Q153Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes :

(1)

Devil fish, Cuttlefish and Hagfish

(2)

Saw fish, Fighting fish and Dog fish

(3)

Starfish, Hagfish and Cuttlefish

(4)

Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish

Q154Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Select the incorrect statements from the following :
A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete.
B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms.
C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes.
D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes.
E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature.
Choose the answer from the options given below :

(1)

A and C only

(2)

B and E only

(3)

C and D only

(4)

B and D only

Q155Single correctCell - The Unit of Life

Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are

(1)

Ribosomes

(2)

Lysosomes

(3)

Centrosomes

(4)

Mitochondria

Q156Single correctOrganisms and Populations

Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth ?

(1)

\frac{d N}{d t} = r N (\frac{K + N}{K})

(2)

\frac{d N}{d t} = r N (\frac{K - N}{K})

(3)

\frac{d N}{d t} = r N (\frac{K - N}{N})

(4)

\frac{d N}{d t} = r N (\frac{K}{K - N})

Q157Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Select the incorrect statements with reference to Rh grouping.
A. Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition observed having foetus with

Rh^{- v e}

blood and mother with

Rh^{+ v e}

blood.
B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings.
C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched.
D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is

Rh^{- v e}

and the foetus is

Rh^{+ v e}

.
E. Erythroblastosis fetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.
Choose the answer from the options given below :

(1)

C and D only

(2)

A and B only

(3)

A and E only

(4)

B and C only

Q158Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Bioactive molecule)	List II (Importance)
A.. Streptokinase	I.. Immunosuppressive agent
B.. Statin	II.. Removal of clot from the blood vessels
C.. Lipases	III.. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent
D.. Cyclosporin A	IV.. Detergent formulation

(1)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q159Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A.. Molluscs	I.. Pulmonary respiration only
B.. Reptiles	II.. Branchial respiration
C.. Adult amphibians	III.. Cellular respiration
D.. $A m oe ba$	IV.. Pulmonary and Cutaneous respiration

(1)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(3)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(4)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Q160Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance / Evolution

The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ___________.

(1)

GUG

(2)

AUG

(3)

GAG

(4)

CAG

Q161Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction.
A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre.
B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of

Ca^{++}

into sarcoplasm.
C. Increase in

Ca^{++}

inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges.
D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge.
E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

C and D only

(2)

A and B only

(3)

C and E only

(4)

A, B, D and E only

Q162Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton ?
A. Human skull is monocondylic.
B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint.
C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven.
D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic.
E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

B and E only

(2)

B, C and E only

(3)

C, D and E only

(4)

A, B and D only

Q163Single correctHuman Reproduction

Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements from the following :
A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division.
B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes.
C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids.
D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis.
E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A and E only

(2)

C and E only

(3)

A, C and E only

(4)

B, C and D only

Q164Single correctExcretory Products and their Elimination

The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in ___________ related to the same nephron.

(1)

Distal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole

(2)

Proximal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole

(3)

Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole

(4)

Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole

Q165Single correctOrganisms and Populations

Which one of the following is an appropriate example of 'sexual deceit' ?

(1)

Female wasp and fig

(2)

Op h rys

and bumblebee

(3)

Sea anemone and clown fish

(4)

Cuckoo and crow

Q166Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy :
A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine.
B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs.
D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes.
E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A, B and C only

(2)

B and D only

(3)

B and C only

(4)

A, C and E only

Q167Single correctHuman Reproduction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A.. The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head	I.. 24 weeks of pregnancy
B.. The foetus develops limbs and digits	II.. 20 weeks of pregnancy
C.. The foetus develops external genital organs	III.. 8 weeks of pregnancy
D.. The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed	IV.. 12 weeks of pregnancy

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(4)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Q168Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ___________.

(1)

females and males, respectively

(2)

all males

(3)

males and females, respectively

(4)

all females

Q169Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes ?

(1)

Male honeybees

(2)

Male earthworms

(3)

Male frogs

(4)

Male grasshoppers

Q170Single correctHuman Reproduction

Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side :
A. Zona pellucida
B. Perivitelline space
C. Corona radiata
D. Plasma membrane of ovum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

D, B, A, C

(2)

C, A, D, B

(3)

C, A, B, D

(4)

A, C, B, D

Q171Single correctMicrobes in Human Welfare

What is the reason behind production of large holes in 'Swiss Cheese' ?

(1)

The production of large amount of

CO_{2}

by Propionibacterium\ sharmanii

(2)

The production of large amount of

CO_{2}

by Clostridium\ butylicum

(3)

The production of large amount of

CO_{2}

and

H_{2}

by lactic acid bacteria called Lactobacillus

(4)

The production of large amount of

CO_{2}

and

H_{2}

by Trichoderma\ polysporum

Q172Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus\ thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively ?

(1)

cry I A c

and

cry I A b

(2)

cry I A c

and

cry II A b

(3)

cry II A b

and

cry I A c

(4)

cry I A c

and

cry III A b

Q173Single correctEcosystem

Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for :

(1)

Pyramid of number in grassland

(2)

Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem

(3)

Pyramid of biomass in grassland

(4)

Pyramid of biomass in sea

Q174Single correctReproductive Health

Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

(1)

Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.

(2)

Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.

(3)

Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube of an infertile female.

(4)

It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and development.

Q175Single correctCell: The Unit of Life

Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions.
A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface.
C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA.
D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton.
E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

A and B only

(2)

A, B and C only

(3)

C, D and E only

(4)

B, C and D only

Q176Single correctCell: The Unit of Life

Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell.
A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein.
B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer.
C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes.
D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium.
E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

C, D and E only

(2)

B, C and E only

(3)

A, B and D only

(4)

A, C and E only

Q177Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A.. Tetany	I.. Inflammation of joints
B.. Arthritis	II.. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
C.. Myasthenia gravis	III.. Wild contraction in muscle due to low $Ca^{++}$ in body fluid
D.. Muscular dystrophy	IV.. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

(1)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Q178Single correctEvolution

Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is :

(1)

Ramapithecus \to Homo habilis \to Homo erectus \to Neanderthal \to Homo sapiens

(2)

Homo sapiens \to Ramapithecus \to Homo habilis \to Neanderthal \to Homo erectus

(3)

Homo habilis \to Homo erectus \to Ramapithecus \to Neanderthal \to Homo sapiens

(4)

Neanderthal \to Ramapithecus \to Homo habilis \to Homo erectus \to Homo sapiens

Q179Single correctAnimal Kingdom

The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as :

(1)

St r u t hi o

(2)

N eo p h ro n

(3)

A pt e n o d y t es

(4)

P s i tt a c u l a

Q180Single correctOrganisms and Populations

Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species.
A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
B. Both species benefit in mutualism.
C. Both species benefit in commensalism.
D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

B and E only

(2)

A and B only

(3)

B, D and E only

(4)

A and D only

More NEET 2026 papers

NEET 2026 — Jun 21

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