The graph which shows the variation of ( 1 λ^2 ) and its kinetic energy, E is (where λ is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):

Graph of 1 λ^2 versus E : a straight line through the origin.

NEET 2024 May 05 Question Paper with Solutions

Q: How many questions are in the NEET 2024 May 05 paper?

The NEET 2024 May 05 paper has 200 questions — Physics (50), Chemistry (50) and Biology (100). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.

Q: What is the marking scheme for NEET?

NEET awards +4 marks for each correct answer and −1 for a wrong answer, with 0 for questions left unattempted. The paper covers Physics, Chemistry and Biology across 180 questions for 720 marks.

Q: Are the answer key and step-by-step solutions provided for the 2024 May 05 paper?

Yes — every question shows the correct answer (answer key) and a detailed step-by-step solution, free to read online.

Q: Can I take the NEET 2024 May 05 paper as a timed mock test?

Yes. With a free NEETnify account you can attempt this exact paper as a timed test in the real exam interface, then see your score and weak-area analysis.

All 200 questions from the NEET 2024 (May 05) paper — Physics (50), Chemistry (50) and Biology (100) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.Physics PYQs 2024 Chemistry PYQs 2024 Biology PYQs 2024

Questions: 200
Physics: 50
Chemistry: 50
Biology: 100

Physics50 questions

Q1Single correctSemiconductor Electronics

A logic circuit provides the output

Y

as per the following truth table :
A | B | Y
0 | 0 | 1
0 | 1 | 0
1 | 0 | 1
1 | 1 | 0
The expression for the output

Y

is :

(1)

A \cdot B + \overset{ˉ}{A}

(2)

A \overset{ˉ}{B} + \overset{ˉ}{A}

(3)

\overset{ˉ}{B}

(4)

B

Q2Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is

v

in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (

P

and

Q

are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?

(1)

Point

P

moves slower than point

Q

(2)

Point

P

moves faster than point

Q

(3)

Both the points

P

and

Q

move with equal speed

(4)

Point

P

has zero speed

Q3Single correctElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance

In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal

A

and terminal

B

is :

Wheatstone-bridge of five 2 uF capacitors between terminals A and B

(1)

2 μ F

(2)

1 μ F

(3)

0.5 μ F

(4)

4 μ F

Q4Single correctWork, Energy and Power

At any instant of time t, the displacement of any particle is given by

2 t - 1

(SI unit) under the influence of force of

5 N

. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

(1)

10

(2)

5

(3)

7

(4)

6

Q5Single correctElectric Charges and Fields

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The potential (V) at any axial point, at

2

m distance (r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector

P

of magnitude,

4 \times 1 0^{- 6}

C m, is

\pm 9 \times 1 0^{3}

V.
(Take

\frac{1}{4 π ε _{0}} = 9 \times 1 0^{9}

SI units)
Reason R:

V = \pm \frac{2 P}{4 π ε _{0} r ^{2}}

, where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at

2

m from the centre of the dipole.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2)

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(3)

A is true but R is false.

(4)

A is false but R is true.

Q6Single correctWork, Energy and Power

Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body A moves with velocity

v_{1}

while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is

v_{2}

. The ratio

v_{1} : v_{2}

(1)

1 : 2

(2)

2 : 1

(3)

4 : 1

(4)

1 : 4

Q7Single correctMagnetism and Matter

In a uniform magnetic field of

0.049

T, a magnetic needle performs

20

complete oscillations in

5

seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is

9.8 \times 1 0^{- 6} kg m^{2}

. If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is

x \times 1 0^{- 5} Am^{2}

, then the value of 'x' is :

A magnetic needle hangs by a thread from a hatched support. The needle is drawn as a slim lozenge with N at its upper-right tip and S at its lower-left tip, sitting in a uniform horizontal field B shown as four dashed arrows pointing right.

(1)

5 π^{2}

(2)

128 π^{2}

(3)

50 π^{2}

(4)

1280 π^{2}

Q8Single correctWave Optics

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then

(1)

The reflected light will be partially polarised.

(2)

The refracted light will be completely polarised.

(3)

Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.

(4)

The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.

Q9Single correctSemiconductor Electronics

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer:
A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (

μ

A), is due to majority charge carriers.

Current I on the vertical axis against voltage V on the horizontal axis, both arrowed, with the four quadrants labelled (I) upper right, (II) upper left, (III) lower left and (IV) lower right.

(1)

A is correct but B is incorrect

(2)

A is incorrect but B is correct

(3)

Both A and B are correct

(4)

Both A and B are incorrect

Q10Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter

The graph which shows the variation of

(\frac{1}{λ ^{2}})

and its kinetic energy, E is (where

λ

is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):

(1)

1/lambda^2 rising from the origin with an increasing slope (concave up).

(2)

1/lambda^2 starting high on the axis and falling away towards zero.

(3)

1/lambda^2 rising from the origin with a decreasing slope, flattening off.

(4)

1/lambda^2 rising from the origin as a straight line of constant slope.

Q11Single correctCurrent Electricity

The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is

10

V and internal resistance

1 Ω

, when connected through an external resistance of

4 Ω

as shown in the figure is:

Single loop: 4 ohm resistor on top; 10 V battery + 1 ohm internal resistance (dashed box) on bottom

(1)

4

(2)

6

(3)

8

(4)

10

Q12Single correctUnits and Measurements

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

(1)

strain and angle

(2)

stress and angle

(3)

strain and arc

(4)

angular speed and stress

Q13Single correctElectromagnetic Induction

In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:

Solenoid-1 with terminals A and B on the left and Solenoid-2 with terminals C and D on the right. A bar magnet between them, N pole on the left and S pole on the right, moves to the right with velocity v towards Solenoid-2.

(1)

A B

and

D C

(2)

B A

and

C D

(3)

A B

and

C D

(4)

B A

and

D C

Q14Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is

2400

g c

m^{2}

. The length of the

400

g rod is nearly :

(1)

8.5

(2)

17.5

(3)

20.7

(4)

72.0

Q15Single correctOscillations

x = 5 sin (π t + \frac{π}{3})

m represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are

(1)

5

cm,

2

(2)

5

2

(3)

5

cm,

1

(4)

5

1

Q16Single correctGravitation

The mass of a planet is

\frac{1}{10}

that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

(1)

19.6 m s^{- 2}

(2)

9.8 m s^{- 2}

(3)

4.9 m s^{- 2}

(4)

3.92 m s^{- 2}

Q17Single correctLaws of Motion

A horizontal force

10

N is applied to a block

A

as shown in figure. The mass of blocks

A

and

B

are

2

kg and

3

kg respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block

A

on block

B

is :

Blocks A (2 kg) and B (3 kg) in contact on a frictionless surface, force F=10 N applied to A pointing right

(1)

Zero

(2)

4

(3)

6

(4)

10

Q18Single correctThermodynamics

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle

ab c d a

. The work done by the gas along the path

b c

is :

Pressure against volume: a rectangular cycle abcda with a at 100 cm3 and 100 kPa, b at 400 cm3 and 100 kPa, c at 400 cm3 and 300 kPa, d at 100 cm3 and 300 kPa. Arrows run a to b, b to c, c to d and d to a.

(1)

Zero

(2)

30

(3)

- 90

(4)

- 60

Q19Single correctAtoms

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges.
Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q20Single correctNuclei

_{82}^{290} X α Y e^{+} Z β^{-} P e^{-} Q

In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are

(1)

280, 81

(2)

286, 80

(3)

288, 82

(4)

286, 81

Q21Single correctMotion in a Plane

A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

(1)

Constant velocity

(2)

Constant acceleration

(3)

Constant velocity but varying acceleration

(4)

Varying velocity and varying acceleration

Q22Single correctRay Optics and Optical Instruments

A light ray enters through a right angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence

3 0^{\circ}

as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is :

Right-angled prism ABC with the right angle at A. A ray strikes face AB at P with an angle of incidence of 30 degrees to the normal, travels inside parallel to base BC, and emerges through face AC.

(1)

\frac{5}{4}

(2)

\frac{5}{2}

(3)

\frac{3}{4}

(4)

\frac{3}{2}

Q23Single correctUnits and Measurements

In a vernier callipers,

(N + 1)

divisions of vernier scale coincide with

N

divisions of main scale. If

1

MSD represents

0.1

mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:

(1)

\frac{1}{10 N}

(2)

\frac{1}{100 ( N + 1 )}

(3)

100 N

(4)

10 (N + 1)

Q24Single correctWave Optics

If the monochromatic source in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

(1)

Interference pattern will disappear

(2)

There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes

(3)

There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes

(4)

All bright fringes will be of equal width

Q25Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter

If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are:
A. The energy of a photon is

E = h ν

.
B. The velocity of a photon is c.
C. The momentum of a photon,

p = \frac{h ν}{c}

.
D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.
E. Photon possesses positive charge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

A and B only

(2)

A, B, C and D only

(3)

A, C and D only

(4)

A, B, D and E only

Q26Single correctSemiconductor Electronics

The output (

Y

) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a

(1)

NAND gate

(2)

NOR gate

(3)

OR gate

(4)

AND gate

Q27Single correctAtoms

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I (Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for transitions from)	List II (Wavelengths (nm))
A. $n_{2} = 3$ to $n_{1} = 2$	I. 410.2
B. $n_{2} = 4$ to $n_{1} = 2$	II. 434.1
C. $n_{2} = 5$ to $n_{1} = 2$	III. 656.3
D. $n_{2} = 6$ to $n_{1} = 2$	IV. 486.1

(1)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q28Single correctMechanical Properties of Fluids

A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 N

m^{- 1}

, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is

(1)

19.8 mN

(2)

198 N

(3)

1.98 mN

(4)

99 N

Q29Single correctAlternating Current

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is

\frac{N _{p}}{N _{s}} = \frac{1}{2}

. The ratio

V_{S} : V_{P}

is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning) :

(1)

1 : 2

(2)

2 : 1

(3)

1 : 1

(4)

1 : 4

Q30Single correctMechanical Properties of Solids

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are

8 \times 1 0^{8}

m^{- 2}

and

2 \times 1 0^{11}

m^{- 2}

, is:

(1)

4 mm

(2)

0.4 mm

(3)

40 mm

(4)

8 mm

Q31Single correctElectric Charges and Fields

A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is:

(Take

\frac{1}{4 π ε _{0}} = 9 \times 1 0^{9}

SI units)

R = 3

cm,

q = 1 μ C

A thin spherical shell carrying charge q = 1 microcoulomb, with centre C, radius R = 3 cm and point P marked on the shell.

(1)

3 \times 1 0^{5}

(2)

1 \times 1 0^{5}

(3)

0.5 \times 1 0^{5}

(4)

Zero

Q32Single correctCurrent Electricity

A wire of length 'l' and resistance 100

Ω

is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

(1)

26 Ω

(2)

52 Ω

(3)

55 Ω

(4)

60 Ω

Q33Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism

A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as

4 π \times 1 0^{- 7}

SI units):

(1)

44 mT

(2)

4.4 T

(3)

4.4 mT

(4)

44 T

Q34Single correctMagnetism and Matter

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

List-I (Material)	List-II (Susceptibility ( $χ$ ))
A. Diamagnetic	I. $χ = 0$
B. Ferromagnetic	II. $0 > χ \geq - 1$
C. Paramagnetic	III. $χ ≫ 1$
D. Non-magnetic	IV. $0 < χ < ε$ (a small positive number)

(1)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q35Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of

ω

rpm. The tension in the string is T. If speed becomes

2 ω

while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

(1)

T

(2)

4 T

(3)

\frac{T}{4}

(4)

2 T

Q36Single correctElectromagnetic Waves

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If

I

is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

(1)

There is no current

(2)

Displacement current of magnitude equal to

I

flows in the same direction as

I

(3)

Displacement current of magnitude equal to

I

flows in a direction opposite to that of

I

(4)

Displacement current of magnitude greater than

I

flows but can be in any direction

Q37Single correctAlternating Current

A 10

μ

F capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (

π = 3.14

A single loop with a 10 microfarad capacitor in the top branch, plus plate on the left and minus on the right, driven by a 210 V, 50 Hz AC source in the bottom branch.

(1)

0.58 A

(2)

0.93 A

(3)

1.20 A

(4)

0.35 A

Q38Single correctOscillations

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is

\frac{x}{2}

times its original time period. Then the value of x is:

(1)

3

(2)

2

(3)

23

(4)

4

Q39Single correctThermodynamics

The following graph represents the T-V curves of an ideal gas (where T is the temperature and V the volume) at three pressures

P_{1}

P_{2}

and

P_{3}

compared with those of Charles' law represented as dotted lines. Then the correct relation is:

Temperature against volume: three solid curves labelled P1, P2 and P3 from left to right, P1 the steepest and P3 the shallowest, each paired with a dashed straight line through the origin representing Charles law.

(1)

P_{3} > P_{2} > P_{1}

(2)

P_{1} > P_{3} > P_{2}

(3)

P_{2} > P_{1} > P_{3}

(4)

P_{1} > P_{2} > P_{3}

Q40Single correctGravitation

The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass

m

from the surface of earth of mass

M

and radius

R

in a circular orbit at an altitude of

2 R

from the surface of the earth is:

(1)

\frac{5 G m M}{6 R}

(2)

\frac{2 G m M}{3 R}

(3)

\frac{G m M}{2 R}

(4)

\frac{G m M}{3 R}

Q41Single correctElectromagnetic Waves

The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that:

(1)

They are transverse in nature

(2)

The energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field

(3)

They travel with a speed equal to

\frac{1}{μ _{0} ε _{0}}

(4)

They originate from charges moving with uniform speed

Q42Single correctCurrent Electricity

Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.

(1)

Wheatstone bridge with 10 ohm and 10 ohm in the upper arms, 15 ohm and 5 ohm in the lower arms and a galvanometer across the middle. The diode D sits in the lower right arm, conducting towards the right node.

(2)

The same bridge, but the diode D in the lower right arm is reversed, conducting away from the right node.

(3)

The same bridge with the lower right corner rerouted: the diode D sits on the branch from the bottom node and the 5 ohm resistor lies on a separate lower branch to the right node.

(4)

The same bridge with the diode D in the lower right arm above the 5 ohm resistor, conducting towards the right node.

Q43Single correctPhysical World and Measurement

A force defined by

F = α t^{2} + βt

acts on a particle at a given time t. The factor which is dimensionless, if

α

and

β

are constants, is:

(1)

βt / α

(2)

α t / β

(3)

α βt

(4)

α β / t

Q44Single correctCurrent Electricity

Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

(1)

1 : 1

(2)

2 : 9

(3)

1 : 2

(4)

2 : 3

Q45Single correctMagnetism and Matter

An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle

6 0^{\circ}

with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

(1)

M

(2)

\frac{M}{2}

(3)

2 M

(4)

\frac{M}{3}

Q46Single correctMechanical Properties of Solids

A metallic bar of Young's modulus,

0.5 \times 1 0^{11}

m^{- 2}

and coefficient of linear thermal expansion

1 0^{- 5}^{\circ} C^{- 1}

, length 1 m and area of cross-section

1 0^{- 3}

m^{2}

is heated from

0^{\circ} C

100^{\circ} C

without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is :

(1)

5 \times 1 0^{3} N

(2)

50 \times 1 0^{3} N

(3)

100 \times 1 0^{3} N

(4)

2 \times 1 0^{3} N

Q47Single correctMotion in a Straight Line

The velocity (

v

) - time (

t

) plot of the motion of a body is shown below. The acceleration (

a

) - time (

t

) graph that best suits this motion is :

Velocity against time: zero, then a straight ramp up to a constant value, a flat plateau, then a straight ramp back down to zero.

(1)

Acceleration against time: a trapezoid entirely above the axis, rising, flat, then falling back to zero.

(2)

Acceleration against time: zero, then a ramp up to a constant positive value that continues.

(3)

Acceleration against time: a positive rectangular pulse, then zero, then a negative rectangular pulse of the same size.

(4)

Acceleration against time: zero, then a negative rectangular pulse, then a straight line rising above the axis.

Q48Single correctElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then

A. the charge stored in it, increases.
B. the energy stored in it, decreases.
C. its capacitance increases.
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. the product of charge and voltage increases.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

A, B and E only

(2)

A, C and E only

(3)

B, D and E only

(4)

A, B and C only

Q49Single correctRay Optics and Optical Instruments

A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:

(1)

34

(2)

28

(3)

17

(4)

32

Q50Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to:

A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.
B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.
C. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.
D. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar.

Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

(1)

B and D only

(2)

A and C only

(3)

A, C and D only

(4)

C only

Chemistry49 questions

Q51Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity:

N, O, F, C, Si

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Si < C < N < O < F

(2)

Si < C < O < N < F

(3)

O < F < N < C < Si

(4)

F < O < N < C < Si

Q52Single correctHydrocarbons

Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.

(1)

(i)

H_{2} O / H^{+}

(ii)

CrO_{3}

(2)

(i)

BH_{3}

(ii)

H_{2} O_{2} / O ⊖ H

(iii) PCC

(3)

(i)

BH_{3}

(ii)

H_{2} O_{2} / O ⊖ H

(iii) alk.KMn

O_{4}

(iv)

H_{3} O^{\oplus}

(4)

(i)

H_{2} O / H^{+}

(ii) PCC

Q53Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes

The compound that will undergo

S_{N}

1 reaction with the fastest rate is

(1)

Cyclohexane ring with a CH2Br side chain.

(2)

Cyclohexane ring with Br bonded directly to a ring carbon.

(3)

Benzene ring with Br bonded directly to a ring carbon.

(4)

Benzene ring bearing a carbon that carries both a CH3 group and Br.

Q54Single correctEquilibrium

For the reaction

2 A ⇌ B + C

K_{C} = 4 \times 1 0^{- 3}

. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is:

[A] = [B] = [C] = 2 \times 1 0^{- 3}

M.

Then, which of the following is correct?

(1)

Reaction is at equilibrium.

(2)

Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.

(3)

Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.

(4)

Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.

Q55Single correctSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry

The highest number of helium atoms is in

(1)

4 mol of helium

(2)

4 u of helium

(3)

4 g of helium

(4)

2.271098 L of helium at STP

Q56Single correctThermodynamics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List-I (Process)	List-II (Conditions)
A. Isothermal process	I. No heat exchange
B. Isochoric process	II. Carried out at constant temperature
C. Isobaric process	III. Carried out at constant volume
D. Adiabatic process	IV. Carried out at constant pressure

(1)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(2)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(3)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q57Single correctStructure of Atom

The energy of an electron in the ground state (

n = 1

) for He

^{+}

ion is

- x

J, then that for an electron in

n = 2

state for B

e^{3 +}

ion in J is

(1)

- x

(2)

- \frac{x}{9}

(3)

- 4 x

(4)

- \frac{4}{9} x

Q58Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I (Molecule)	List II (Number and types of bonds(s) between two carbon atoms)
A. ethane	I. one $σ$ -bond and two $π$ -bonds
B. ethene	II. two $π$ -bonds
C. carbon molecule, $C_{2}$	III. one $σ$ -bond
D. ethyne	IV. one $σ$ -bond and one $π$ -bond

(1)

A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q59Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I (Compound)	List II (Shape/geometry)
A. $NH_{3}$	I. Trigonal Pyramidal
B. $BrF_{5}$	II. Square Planar
C. $XeF_{4}$	III. Octahedral
D. $SF_{6}$	IV. Square Pyramidal

(1)

A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(2)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q60Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements

The E

^{\circ}

value for the M

n^{3 +}

n^{2 +}

couple is more positive than that of C

r^{3 +}

r^{2 +}

or F

e^{3 +}

e^{2 +}

due to change of

(1)

d^{5}

d^{4}

configuration

(2)

d^{5}

d^{2}

configuration

(3)

d^{4}

d^{5}

configuration

(4)

d^{3}

d^{5}

configuration

Q61Single correctEquilibrium

In which of the following equilibria, K

_{P}

and K

_{C}

are NOT equal?

(1)

PCl_{5 (g)} ⇌ PCl_{3 (g)} + Cl_{2 (g)}

(2)

H_{2 (g)} + I_{2 (g)} ⇌ 2 HI_{(g)}

(3)

CO_{(g)} + H_{2} O_{(g)} ⇌ CO_{2 (g)} + H_{2 (g)}

(4)

2 BrCl_{(g)} ⇌ Br_{2 (g)} + Cl_{2 (g)}

Q62Single correctThe p-Block Elements

Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show

- 2

oxidation state?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q63Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements

'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?

A. T

i^{3 +}

B. C

r^{2 +}

C. M

n^{2 +}

D. F

e^{2 +}

E. S

c^{3 +}

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

B and D only

(2)

A and E only

(3)

B and C only

(4)

A and D only

Q64Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques

A compound with a molecular formula

C_{6} H_{14}

has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is :

(1)

n-hexane

(2)

2-methylpentane

(3)

2,3-dimethylbutane

(4)

2,2-dimethylbutane

Q65Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order
n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane

Statement II : When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q66Single correctChemical Kinetics

Which plot of ln k vs

\frac{1}{T}

is consistent with Arrhenius equation?

(1)

ln k against 1/T: a straight line of positive slope cutting the vertical axis below the origin.

(2)

ln k against 1/T: a straight line of positive slope cutting the vertical axis above the origin.

(3)

ln k against 1/T: a straight line of positive slope passing through the origin.

(4)

ln k against 1/T: a straight line of negative slope starting high on the vertical axis and falling to the horizontal axis.

Q67Single correctSolutions

The Henry's law constant (K

_{H}

) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145,

2 \times 1 0^{- 5}

and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:

(1)

B > A > C

(2)

B > C > A

(3)

A > C > B

(4)

A > B > C

Q68Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Fehling's solution 'A' is

(1)

aqueous copper sulphate

(2)

alkaline copper sulphate

(3)

alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle's salt)

(4)

aqueous sodium citrate

Q69Single correctThe p-Block Elements

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order

H_{2}

O >

H_{2}

Te >

H_{2}

Se >

H_{2}

S.

Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass,

H_{2}

O is expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in

H_{2}

O, it has higher boiling point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q70Single correctCoordination Compounds

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Both

[Co(NH_{3})_{6}]^{3 +}

and

[CoF_{6}]^{3 -}

complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour.

Statement II:

[Co(NH_{3})_{6}]^{3 +}

is diamagnetic whereas

[CoF_{6}]^{3 -}

is paramagnetic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q71Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques

The most stable carbocation among the following is :

(1)

A secondary carbocation: CH3CH2 joined to a positively charged CH, which carries an isopropyl group.

(2)

A secondary carbocation: CH3 joined to a positively charged CH, then CH2 and an isopropyl group.

(3)

A primary carbocation: a cyclopentane ring joined to a positively charged CH2.

(4)

A tertiary carbocation: a cyclohexane ring whose CH3-bearing carbon carries the positive charge.

Q72Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques

On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as

(1)

Crystallization

(2)

Sublimation

(3)

Distillation

(4)

Chromatography

Q73Single correctCoordination Compounds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I (Complex)	List II (Type of isomerism)
A. $[Co(NH_{3})_{5} (NO_{2})]Cl_{2}$	I. Solvate isomerism
B. $[Co(NH_{3})_{5} (SO_{4})]Br$	II. Linkage isomerism
C. $[Co(NH_{3})_{6}][Cr(CN)_{6}]$	III. Ionization isomerism
D. $[Co(H_{2} O)_{6}]Cl_{3}$	IV. Coordination isomerism

(1)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(3)

A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Q74Single correctBiomolecules

The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are
A. Tollen's reagent
B. Schiff's reagent
C. HCN
D. N

H_{2}

OH
E. NaHS

O_{3}

Choose the correct options from the given below:

(1)

B and C

(2)

A and D

(3)

B and E

(4)

E and D

Q75Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I (Reaction)	List II (Reagents/Condition)
A.	I.
B.	II. $CrO_{3}$
C.	III. KMn $O_{4}$ /KOH, $Δ$
D.	IV. (i) $O_{3}$ (ii) Zn- $H_{2}$ O

(1)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(2)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(4)

A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Q76Single correctChemical Kinetics

Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of

(1)

rate constant at standard temperature

(2)

probability of collision

(3)

orientation of reactant molecules during collision

(4)

rate constant at two different temperatures

Q77Single correctElectrochemistry

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I (Conversion)	List II (Number of Faraday required)
A. 1 mol of $H_{2}$ O to $O_{2}$	I. 3F
B. 1 mol of MnO $_{4}^{-}$ to M $n^{2 +}$	II. 2F
C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaC $l_{2}$	III. 1F
D. 1 mol of FeO to F $e_{2} O_{3}$	IV. 5F

(1)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(4)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Q78Single correctHydrogen Bonding / General Organic Chemistry

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

(1)

Benzene ring with NO2 and OH on adjacent carbons (ortho-nitrophenol).

(2)

Benzene ring with NO2 and OH on opposite carbons (para-nitrophenol).

(3)

Benzene ring with NO2 and OH in a 1,3 relationship (meta-nitrophenol).

(4)

Q79Single correctAmines

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Q80Single correctAlcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?

(1)

CH_{3} - CH_{2} - CH_{2} - CH_{2} OH

(2)

Butan-2-ol: CH3-CH2-CH(OH) with a CH3 branch, a secondary alcohol.

(3)

2-Methylpropan-1-ol: CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2OH, a primary alcohol.

(4)

2-Methylpropan-2-ol: a central carbon bearing three CH3 groups and OH, a tertiary alcohol.

Q81Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy:
Li, Be, B, C, N

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Li < Be < B < C < N

(2)

Li < B < Be < C < N

(3)

Li < Be < C < B < N

(4)

Li < Be < N < B < C

Q82Single correctRedox Reactions

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

(1)

Zn + CuSO_{4} \to ZnSO_{4} + Cu

(2)

2 KClO_{3} + I_{2} \to 2 KIO_{3} + Cl_{2}

(3)

H_{2} + Cl_{2} \to 2 HCl

(4)

BaCl_{2} + Na_{2} SO_{4} \to BaSO_{4} + 2 NaCl

Q83Single correctStructure of Atom

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I (Quantum Number)	List II (Information provided)
A. $m_{l}$	I. Shape of orbital
B. $m_{s}$	II. Size of orbital
C. $l$	III. Orientation of orbital
D. $n$	IV. Orientation of spin of electron

(1)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Q84Single correctThermodynamics

In which of the following processes entropy increases?
A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.
B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K.
C.

2 NaHCO_{3 (s)} \to Na_{2} CO_{3 (s)} + CO_{2 (g)} + H_{2} O_{(g)}

Cl_{2 (g)} \to 2 Cl_{(g)}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

A and C

(2)

A, B and D

(3)

A, C and D

(4)

C and D

Q85Single correctSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry

1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to

(1)

750 mg

(2)

250 mg

(3)

Zero mg

(4)

200 mg

Q86Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are

3 ROH + PCl_{3} \to 3 RCl + A

ROH + PCl_{5} \to RCl + HCl + B

(1)

POCl_{3}

and

H_{3} PO_{3}

(2)

POCl_{3}

and

H_{3} PO_{4}

(3)

H_{3} PO_{4}

and

POCl_{3}

(4)

H_{3} PO_{3}

and

POCl_{3}

Q87Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are

2-Methylcyclohexan-1-ol treated with PBr3 to give the major product A, then with alcoholic KOH and heat to give the major product B.

(1)

A is 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane; B is 1-methylcyclohex-1-ene, the methyl sitting on a double-bonded ring carbon.

(2)

A is 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane; B is 4-methylcyclohex-1-ene, the double bond on the far side of the ring from the methyl.

(3)

A is 2-methylcyclohexan-1-ol still bearing OH with Br on the next carbon; B keeps the OH and has a double bond on the far side of the ring.

(4)

A is 2-methylcyclohexan-1-ol still bearing OH with Br on the next carbon; B is 2-methylcyclohexan-1-one.

Q88Single correctAmines / Nitriles

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:

CH_{3} - CH_{2} - CH_{2} - I NaCN A

A OH^{-} Partial hydrolysis B NaOH Br_{2} C (major)

(1)

propylamine

(2)

butylamine

(3)

butanamide

(4)

α

-bromobutanoic acid

Q89Single correctRedox / d-Block Elements

During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of

Fe^{2 +}

ion?

(1)

dilute hydrochloric acid

(2)

concentrated sulphuric acid

(3)

dilute nitric acid

(4)

dilute sulphuric acid

Q90Single correctEquilibrium

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of

N_{2} = 3.0 \times 1 0^{- 3}

O_{2} = 4.2 \times 1 0^{- 3}

M and NO

= 2.8 \times 1 0^{- 3}

2 NO_{(g)} ⇌ N_{2 (g)} + O_{2 (g)}

If 0.1 mol

L^{- 1}

NO_{(g)}

is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation (

α

) of

NO_{(g)}

at equilibrium?

(1)

0.00889

(2)

0.0889

(3)

0.8889

(4)

0.717

Q91Single correctThermodynamics

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is
(Given R = 2.0 cal

K^{- 1}

mol^{- 1}

)

(1)

0 calorie

(2)

-413.14 calories

(3)

413.14 calories

(4)

100 calories

Q92Single correctElectrochemistry

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g

mol^{- 1}

, 1 F = 96487 C)

(1)

3.15 g

(2)

0.315 g

(3)

31.5 g

(4)

0.0315 g

Q93Single correctChemical Kinetics

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation.
(Given R = 8.314 J

K^{- 1}

mol^{- 1}

, log4 = 0.6021)

(1)

38.04 kJ/mol

(2)

380.4 kJ/mol

(3)

3.80 kJ/mol

(4)

3804 kJ/mol

Q94Single correctSolutions

The plot of osmotic pressure (

Π

) vs concentration (mol

L^{- 1}

) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar

mol^{- 1}

. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is
(Use R = 0.083 L bar

mol^{- 1}

K^{- 1}

)

(1)

37°C

(2)

310°C

(3)

25.73°C

(4)

12.05°C

Q95Single correctQualitative Analysis (Inorganic)

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI.
A.

Al^{3 +}

Cu^{2 +}

Ba^{2 +}

Co^{2 +}

Mg^{2 +}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

B, A, D, C, E

(2)

B, C, A, D, E

(3)

E, C, D, B, A

(4)

E, A, B, C, D

Q96Single correctCoordination Compounds

Given below are two statements :
Statement I :

[Co (NH_{3})_{6}]^{3 +}

is a homoleptic complex whereas

[Co (NH_{3})_{4} Cl_{2}]^{+}

is a heteroleptic complex.
Statement II : Complex

[Co (NH_{3})_{6}]^{3 +}

has only one kind of ligands but

[Co (NH_{3})_{4} Cl_{2}]^{+}

has more than one kind of ligands.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q97Single correctd- and f-Block Elements

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

(1)

Ce^{4 +}

and

Yb^{2 +}

(2)

Ce^{3 +}

and

Eu^{2 +}

(3)

Gd^{3 +}

and

Eu^{3 +}

(4)

Pm^{3 +}

and

Sm^{3 +}

Q99Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Identify the correct answer.

(1)

Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone

(2)

BF_{3}

has non-zero dipole moment

(3)

Dipole moment of

NF_{3}

is greater than that of

NH_{3}

(4)

Three canonical forms can be drawn for

CO_{3}^{2 -}

ion

Q100Single correctSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is :
(Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)

(1)

A_{2} BC_{2}

(2)

ABC_{3}

(3)

AB_{2} C_{2}

(4)

ABC_{4}

Biology100 questions

Q101Single correctBiological Classification

Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List-I	List-II
A. $Rhizopus$	I. Mushroom
B. $Ustilago$	II. Smut fungus
C. $Puccinia$	III. Bread mould
D. $Agaricus$	IV. Rust fungus

(1)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q102Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.

Longitudinal section of a seed with four parts labelled A, B, C and D by arrows on the right.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q103Single correctBiomolecules

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

(1)

Amino acids

(2)

Phospholipids

(3)

Glycerides

(4)

Carbohydrates

Q104Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene	I. Back cross
B. Cross of $F_{1}$ progeny with homozygous recessive parent	II. Ploidy
C. Cross of $F_{1}$ progeny with any of the parents	III. Allele
D. Number of chromosome sets in plant	IV. Test cross

(1)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q105Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and down stream end:

(1)

Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene

(2)

Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene

(3)

Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene

(4)

Promoter, Structural gene, Terminator

Q106Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

(1)

promotes apical dominance.

(2)

promotes abscission of mature leaves only.

(3)

does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.

(4)

can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.

Q107Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:
A. Over exploitation
B. Co-extinction
C. Mutation
D. Habitat loss and fragmentation
E. Migration
Choose the correct option:

(1)

A, C and D only

(2)

A, B, C and D only

(3)

A, B and E only

(4)

A, B and D only

Q108Single correctMicrobes in Human Welfare

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A. $Clostridium butylicum$	I. Ethanol
B. $Saccharomyces cerevisiae$	II. Streptokinase
C. $Trichoderma polysporum$	III. Butyric acid
D. $Streptococcus sp.$	IV. Cyclosporin-A

(1)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Q109Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

(1)

Prophase

(2)

Metaphase

(3)

Anaphase

(4)

Telophase

Q110Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?

(1)

Datura

(2)

Cassia

(3)

Pisum

(4)

Sesbania

Q111Single correctMineral Nutrition

The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

(1)

Zinc

(2)

Niacin

(3)

Flavin

(4)

Haem

Q112Single correctCell - The Unit of Life

Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List-I	List-II
A. Nucleolus	I. Site of formation of glycolipid
B. Centriole	II. Organization like the cartwheel
C. Leucoplasts	III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
D. Golgi apparatus	IV. For storing nutrients

(1)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(2)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q113Single correctPlant Growth and Development

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

(1)

Totipotency

(2)

Micropropagation

(3)

Differentiation

(4)

Somatic hybridization

Q114Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Hind

II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

(1)

8 bp

(2)

6 bp

(3)

4 bp

(4)

10 bp

Q115Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Identify the set of correct statements:
A. The flowers of

Vallisneria

are colourful and produce nectar.
B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water.
C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.
D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like.
E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

C, D and E only

(2)

A, B, C and D only

(3)

A, C, D and E only

(4)

B, C, D and E only

Q116Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue.
Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q117Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

(1)

Differentiation

(2)

Redifferentiation

(3)

Dedifferentiation

(4)

Maturation

Q118Single correctRespiration in Plants

Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

(1)

Cofactor inhibition

(2)

Feedback inhibition

(3)

Competitive inhibition

(4)

Enzyme activation

Q119Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)

Two longitudinal sections of flowers, (a) and (b), showing the positions of calyx, corolla and androecium relative to the ovary.

(1)

(a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous

(2)

(a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous

(3)

(a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous

(4)

(a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous

Q120Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BB/Bb

Q121Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because
A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.
B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.
C. More solar energy is available in tropics.
D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.
E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

A, C, D and E only

(2)

A and B only

(3)

A, B and E only

(4)

A, B and D only

Q122Single correctOrganisms and Populations

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is

\frac{d N}{d t} = r N [\frac{K - N}{K}]

.
From this equation, K indicates:

(1)

Intrinsic rate of natural increase

(2)

Biotic potential

(3)

Carrying capacity

(4)

Population density

Q123Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?

Surface view of a stomatal apparatus with four components labelled A, B, C and D.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q124Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage.
Statement II : The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q125Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

List of endangered species was released by

(1)

GEAC

(2)

WWF

(3)

FOAM

(4)

IUCN

Q126Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
A. Light
B. Chlorophyll
C.

CO_{2}

D. ATP
E. NADPH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

A, B and C only

(2)

B, C and D only

(3)

C, D and E only

(4)

D and E only

Q127Single correctOrganisms and Populations

The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called

(1)

in

s i t u

conservation

(2)

Biodiversity conservation

(3)

Semi-conservative method

(4)

Sustainable development

Q128Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?
A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.
E. It shows ability to replicate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

A and B only

(2)

D and E only

(3)

B and C only

(4)

A and E only

Q129Single correctBiotechnology: Principles and Processes

The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of

(1)

Beta-galactosidase

(2)

Acetylase

(3)

Permease

(4)

Polymerase

Q130Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.
B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in

F_{2}

generation.
C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.
E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

A, B and C only

(2)

A, C, D and E only

(3)

B, C and D only

(4)

A, B, C, D and E

Q131Single correctBiological Classification

Which one of the following is

n o t

a criterion for classification of fungi?

(1)

Morphology of mycelium

(2)

Mode of nutrition

(3)

Mode of spore formation

(4)

Fruiting body

Q132Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.
Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B.\ thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q133Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

Bulliform cells are responsible for

(1)

Inward curling of leaves in monocots.

(2)

Protecting the plant from salt stress.

(3)

Increased photosynthesis in monocots.

(4)

Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.

Q134Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

(1)

Only red flowered plants

(2)

Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants

(3)

Only pink flowered plants

(4)

Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants

Q135Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of

CO_{2}

fixed in the Calvin cycle?

(1)

2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

(2)

2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

(3)

3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

(4)

3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

Q136Single correctOrganisms and Populations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A.. Robert May	I.. Species-Area relationship
B.. Alexander von Humboldt	II.. Long term ecosystem experiment using out door plots
C.. Paul Ehrlich	III.. Global species diversity at about 7 million
D.. David Tilman	IV.. Rivet popper hypothesis

(1)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(2)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(4)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Q137Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Identify the correct description about the given figure:

An elongated inflorescence bearing numerous flowers with long exposed stamens.

(1)

Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.

(2)

Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.

(3)

Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.

(4)

Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy

Q138Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A.. Frederick Griffith	I.. Genetic code
B.. Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod	II.. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication
C.. Har Gobind Khorana	III.. Transformation
D.. Meselson & Stahl	IV.. $L a c$ operon

(1)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(4)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q139Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators, increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?

(1)

Auxin

(2)

Gibberellin

(3)

Cytokinin

(4)

Abscisic acid

Q140Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A.. Rose	I.. Twisted aestivation
B.. Pea	II.. Perigynous flower
C.. Cotton	III.. Drupe
D.. Mango	IV.. Marginal placentation

(1)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q141Single correctBiological Classification

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
In the members of Phaeophyceae,
A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.
B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.
D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

A, B, C and D only

(2)

B, C, D and E only

(3)

A, C, D and E only

(4)

A, B, C and E only

Q142Single correctRespiration in Plants

Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

(1)

Malic acid

\to

Oxaloacetic acid

(2)

Succinic acid

\to

Malic acid

(3)

Succinyl-CoA

\to

Succinic acid

(4)

Isocitrate

\to

α

-ketoglutaric acid

Q143Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In

C_{3}

plants, some

O_{2}

binds to RuBisCO, hence

C O_{2}

fixation is decreased.
Statement II: In

C_{4}

plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q144Single correctBiomolecules

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

List-I	List-II
A.. GLUT-4	I.. Hormone
B.. Insulin	II.. Enzyme
C.. Trypsin	III.. Intercellular ground substance
D.. Collagen	IV.. Enables glucose transport into cells

(1)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q145Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II (Example)
A.. Monoadelphous	I.. Citrus
B.. Diadelphous	II.. Pea
C.. Polyadelphous	III.. Lily
D.. Epiphyllous	IV.. China-rose

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(3)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(4)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q146Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

The DNA present in chloroplast is:

(1)

Linear, double stranded

(2)

Circular, double stranded

(3)

Linear, single stranded

(4)

Circular, single stranded

Q147Single correctEcosystem

In an ecosystem where the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is

100 x

(kcal m^{- 2}) yr^{- 1}

, what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level in the same ecosystem?

(1)

\frac{x}{10} (kcal m^{- 2}) yr^{- 1}

(2)

x (kcal m^{- 2}) yr^{- 1}

(3)

10 x (kcal m^{- 2}) yr^{- 1}

(4)

\frac{100 x}{3 x} (kcal m^{- 2}) yr^{- 1}

Q148Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

(1)

Callus

(2)

Somatic embryos

(3)

Protoplasts

(4)

Pollens

Q149Single correctRespiration in Plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A.. Citric acid cycle	I.. Cytoplasm
B.. Glycolysis	II.. Mitochondrial matrix
C.. Electron transport system	III.. Intermembrane space of mitochondria
D.. Proton gradient	IV.. Inner mitochondrial membrane

(1)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q150Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in

E . co l i

(1)

The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is

3^{'} \to 5^{'}

(2)

The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is

5^{'} \to 3^{'}

(3)

The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in

5^{'} \to 3^{'}

as well as

3^{'} \to 5^{'}

direction

(4)

The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in

5^{'} \to 3^{'}

direction

Q151Single correctChemical Coordination and Integration

Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

(1)

Cortisol

(2)

Testosterone

(3)

Progesterone

(4)

Glucagon

Q152Single correctHuman Reproduction

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q153Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)

A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product

(2)

Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type

(3)

Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures

(4)

Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system

Q154Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Which one is the correct product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase to the given template?

3’TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5’

(1)

5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’

(2)

5’AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’

(3)

5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3’

(4)

5’ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3’

Q155Single correctHuman Reproduction

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason R : Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2)

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3)

A is true but R is false

(4)

A is false but R is true

Q156Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A. Typhoid	I. Fungus
B. Leishmaniasis	II. Nematode
C. Ringworm	III. Protozoa
D. Filariasis	IV. Bacteria

(1)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(3)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Q157Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart
A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle branches
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below

(1)

E-C-A-D-B

(2)

A-E-C-B-D

(3)

B-D-E-C-A

(4)

E-A-D-B-C

Q158Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Diakinesis	I. Synaptonemal complex formation
B. Pachytene	II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata
C. Zygotene	III. Chromosomes look like thin threads
D. Leptotene	IV. Appearance of recombination nodules

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(3)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q159Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in human body:

Three muscle tissue types labelled (a), (b) and (c) as seen under the microscope.

(1)

(a) Smooth - Toes
(b) Skeletal - Legs
(c) Cardiac - Heart

(2)

(a) Skeletal - Triceps
(b) Smooth - Stomach
(c) Cardiac - Heart

(3)

(a) Skeletal - Biceps
(b) Involuntary - Intestine
(c) Smooth - Heart

(4)

(a) Involuntary - Nose tip
(b) Skeletal - Bone
(c) Cardiac - Heart

Q160Single correctReproductive Health

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

List I	List II
A. Non-medicated IUD	I. Multiload 375
B. Copper releasing IUD	II. Progestogens
C. Hormone releasing IUD	III. Lippes loop
D. Implants	IV. LNG-20

(1)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(3)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(4)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q161Single correctBiomolecules

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List-I	List-II
A. Lipase	I. Peptide bond
B. Nuclease	II. Ester bond
C. Protease	III. Glycosidic bond
D. Amylase	IV. Phosphodiester bond

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(4)

A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Q162Single correctHuman Reproduction

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.
Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2)

Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3)

A is correct but R is not correct

(4)

A is not correct but R is correct

Q163Single correctEvolution

Given below are some stages of human evolution.
Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)
A. Homo habilis
B. Homo sapiens
C. Homo neanderthalensis
D. Homo erectus
Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:

(1)

D-A-C-B

(2)

B-A-D-C

(3)

C-B-D-A

(4)

A-D-C-B

Q164Single correctCell: The Unit of Life

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Axoneme	I. Centriole
B. Cartwheel pattern	II. Cilia and flagella
C. Crista	III. Chromosome
D. Satellite	IV. Mitochondria

(1)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(2)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(3)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(4)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Q165Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. $Pt ero p h y ll u m$	I. Hag fish
B. $M y x in e$	II. Saw fish
C. $P r i s t i s$	III. Angel fish
D. $E x ocoe t u s$	IV. Flying fish

(1)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(2)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(4)

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Q166Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. $α - 1$ antitrypsin	I. Cotton bollworm
B. Cry IAb	II. ADA deficiency
C. Cry IAc	III. Emphysema
D. Enzyme replacement therapy	IV. Corn borer

(1)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Q167Single correctBiotechnology: Principles and Processes

The 'Ti plasmid' of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

(1)

Tumour inhibiting plasmid

(2)

Tumor independent plasmid

(3)

Tumor inducing plasmid

(4)

Temperature independent plasmid

Q168Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Pleurobrachia	I. Mollusca
B. Radula	II. Ctenophora
C. Stomochord	III. Osteichthyes
D. Air bladder	IV. Hemichordata

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q169Single correctReproductive Health

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

(1)

Coitus interruptus

(2)

Periodic abstinence

(3)

Lactational amenorrhea

(4)

Vaults

Q170Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Following are the stages of cell division :
A. Gap 2 phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Synthesis phase
D. Karyokinesis
E. Gap 1 phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below :

(1)

C-E-D-A-B

(2)

E-B-D-A-C

(3)

B-D-E-A-C

(4)

E-C-A-D-B

Q171Single correctEvolution

Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

(1)

Genetic recombination

(2)

Genetic drift

(3)

Gene migration

(4)

Constant gene pool

Q172Single correctNeural Control and Coordination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Pons	I. Provides additional space for Neurons, regulates posture and balance.
B. Hypothalamus	II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions.
C. Medulla	III. Connects different regions of the brain.
D. Cerebellum	IV. Neuro secretory cells

(1)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(2)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(4)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Q173Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Expiratory capacity	I. Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Functional residual capacity	II. Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume
C. Vital capacity	III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Inspiratory capacity	IV. Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume

(1)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(3)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(4)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Q174Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Muscular dystrophy
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

A, B & D only

(2)

A, B & E only

(3)

B, C & E only

(4)

C, D & E only

Q175Single correctHuman Reproduction

Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

(1)

Uterine fundus

(2)

Isthmus

(3)

Infundibulum

(4)

Ampulla

Q176Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Fibrous joints	I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement
B. Cartilaginous joints	II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle, rotational movement
C. Hinge joints	III. Skull, don't allow any movement
D. Ball and socket joints	IV. Knee, help in locomotion

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(4)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q177Single correctEvolution

The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of the

(1)

Adaptive radiation

(2)

Natural selection

(3)

Convergent evolution

(4)

Divergent evolution

Q178Single correctExcretory Products and their Elimination

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q179Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on

(1)

5^{th}

segment

(2)

1 0^{th}

segment

(3)

8^{th}

and

9^{th}

segment

(4)

1 1^{th}

segment

Q180Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

(1)

High

pO_{2}

and High

pCO_{2}

(2)

High

pO_{2}

and Lesser

H^{+}

concentration

(3)

Low

pCO_{2}

and High

H^{+}

concentration

(4)

Low

pCO_{2}

and High temperature

Q181Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

The following diagram showing restriction sites in

E .

coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of '

X

' and '

Y

' genes :

(1)

The gene '

X

' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and '

Y

' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.

(2)

The gene '

X

' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and '

Y

' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.

(3)

The gene '

X

' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and '

Y

' for resistance to antibiotics.

(4)

Gene '

X

' is responsible for recognitions sites and '

Y

' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.

Q182Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Down's syndrome	I. $1 1^{th}$ chromosome
B. $α$ -Thalassemia	II. 'X' chromosome
C. $β$ -Thalassemia	III. $2 1^{st}$ chromosome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome	IV. $1 6^{th}$ chromosome

(1)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q183Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Consider the following statements :
A. Annelids are true coelomates
B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates
C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates
D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

B only

(2)

A only

(3)

C only

(4)

D only

Q184Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Common cold	I. $Plasmodium$
B. Haemozoin	II. Typhoid
C. Widal test	III. Rhinoviruses
D. Allergy	IV. Dust mites

(1)

A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(4)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Q185Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A. Cocaine	I. Effective sedative in surgery
B. Heroin	II. $Cannabis sativa$
C. Morphine	III. $Erythroxylum$
D. Marijuana	IV. $Papaver somniferum$

(1)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(2)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(4)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q186Single correctOrganisms and Populations

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.
Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(3)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(4)

Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q187Single correctAnimal Kingdom

The following are the statements about non-chordates:
A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
B. Notochord is absent.
C. Central nervous system is dorsal.
D. Heart is dorsal if present.
E. Post anal tail is absent.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

A & C only

(2)

A, B & D only

(3)

B, D & E only

(4)

B, C & D only

Q188Single correctNeural Control and Coordination

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.
Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q189Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Match List I with List II related to digestive system of cockroach. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A. The structures used for storing of food	I. Gizzard
B. Ring of 6-8 blind tubules at junction of foregut and midgut.	II. Gastric Caeca
C. Ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin filaments at junction of midgut and hindgut.	III. Malpighian tubules
D. The structures used for grinding the food.	IV. Crop

(1)

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(2)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Q190Single correctChemical Coordination and Integration

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Exophthalmic goiter	I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia.
B. Acromegaly	II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth.
C. Cushing's syndrome	III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls.
D. Cretinism	IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone.

(1)

A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(2)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q191Single correctExcretory Products and their Elimination

Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

(1)

Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.

(2)

Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.

(3)

Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.

(4)

Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.

Q192Single correctBiomolecules

Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps :
A. Substrate enzyme complex formation.
B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.
C. Release of products.
D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.
E. Substrate binding to active site.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

E, A, D, C, B

(2)

A, E, B, D, C

(3)

B, A, C, D, E

(4)

E, D, C, B, A

Q193Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I	List II
A. Unicellular glandular epithelium	I. Salivary glands
B. Compound epithelium	II. Pancreas
C. Multicellular glandular epithelium	III. Goblet cells of alimentary canal
D. Endocrine glandular epithelium	IV. Moist surface of buccal cavity

(1)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(2)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Q194Single correctEvolution

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. Mesozoic Era	I. Lower invertebrates
B. Proterozoic Era	II. Fish & Amphibia
C. Cenozoic Era	III. Birds & Reptiles
D. Paleozoic Era	IV. Mammals

(1)

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(2)

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(3)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(4)

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q195Single correctCell - The Unit of Life

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both double membranes bound organelles.
Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared chloroplast.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q196Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. P wave	I. Heart muscles are electrically silent.
B. QRS complex	II. Depolarisation of ventricles.
C. T wave	III. Depolarisation of atria.
D. T-P gap	IV. Repolarisation of ventricles.

(1)

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(2)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(3)

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(4)

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Q197Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q198Single correctHuman Reproduction

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.
The flow chart begins with GnRH branching into LH and (A). LH leads to (B), which leads to Androgens, which lead to Formation of spermatids. (A) leads to (C), which leads to Factors, which lead to (D).

(1)

FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.

(2)

ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.

(3)

FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.

(4)

ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.

Q199Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B

^{+}

, mother is A

^{+}

and child is O

^{+}

. Their respective genotype can be
(A)

I^{B} i / I^{A} i / ii

(B)

I^{B} I^{B} / I^{A} I^{A} / ii

(C)

I^{A} I^{B} / i I^{A} / I^{B} i

(D)

I^{A} i / I^{B} i / I^{A} i

(E)

i I^{B} / i I^{A} / I^{A} I^{B}

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1)

A only

(2)

B only

(3)

C & B only

(4)

D & E only

Q200Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List I	List II
A. RNA polymerase III	I. snRNPs
B. Termination of transcription	II. Promotor
C. Splicing of Exons	III. Rho factor
D. TATA box	IV. SnRNAs, tRNA

(1)

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2)

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(3)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(4)

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

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