NEET 2022 Jul 17 Question Paper with Solutions

All 200 questions from the NEET 2022 (Jul 17) paper — Physics (50), Chemistry (50) and Biology (100) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.Physics PYQs 2022 Chemistry PYQs 2022 Biology PYQs 2022

Questions: 200
Physics: 50
Chemistry: 50
Biology: 100

Physics50 questions

Q1Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter

The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (

λ

) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is

(1)

Lambda against p: a straight line of positive slope, clear of both axes.

(2)

Lambda against p: a straight line of negative slope falling from top left to bottom right.

(3)

Lambda against p: a curve that runs flat just above the p axis and then rises steeply.

(4)

Lambda against p: a rectangular hyperbola falling steeply from high on the lambda axis and flattening towards the p axis.

Q2Single correctCurrent Electricity

As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance

(1)

Increases for both conductors and semiconductors

(2)

Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors

(3)

Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors

(4)

Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors

Q3Single correctAtoms

Let

T_{1}

and

T_{2}

be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio

T_{1} : T_{2}

(1)

1 : 4

(2)

4 : 1

(3)

4 : 9

(4)

9 : 4

Q4Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is

(1)

\frac{10}{3}

(2)

\frac{20}{3}

(3)

10

(4)

5

Q5Single correctMotion in a Straight Line

The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second

(1)

1 : 2 : 3 : 4

(2)

1 : 4 : 9 : 16

(3)

1 : 3 : 5 : 7

(4)

1 : 1 : 1 : 1

Q6Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is

(1)

2 : 1

(2)

2 : 1

(3)

4 : 1

(4)

1 : 2

Q7Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/

s^{2}

(1)

2 π

(2)

4 π

(3)

12 π

(4)

104 π

Q8Single correctThermodynamics

An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is

P-V diagram: four curves 1-4 fan from a common upper-left point (1 vertical, 4 horizontal, 2 & 3 falling)

(1)

1

(2)

2

(3)

3

(4)

4

Q9Single correctElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Two hollow conducting spheres of radii

R_{1}

and

R_{2}

(

R_{1} ≫ R_{2}

) have equal charges. The potential would be

(1)

List-I (Electromagnetic waves)	List-II (Wavelength)
(a). AM radio waves	(i). $1 0^{- 10}$ m
(b). Microwaves	(ii). $1 0^{2}$ m
(c). Infrared radiations	(iii). $1 0^{- 2}$ m
(d). X-rays	(iv). $1 0^{- 4}$ m

List-I	List-II
(a). Gravitational constant (G)	(i). $[L^{2} T^{- 2}]$
(b). Gravitational potential energy	(ii). $[M^{- 1} L^{3} T^{- 2}]$
(c). Gravitational potential	(iii). $[L T^{- 2}]$
(d). Gravitational intensity	(iv). $[M L^{2} T^{- 2}]$

Chemistry50 questions

Q51Single correctThe s-Block and p-Block Elements (Group trends)

Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of

(1)

small size

(2)

high exchange enthalpy

(3)

high electronegativity

(4)

high basic character

Q52Single correctStates of Matter

Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture

(where

p_{i}

= partial pressure of

i^{t h}

gas,

χ_{i}

= mole fraction of

i^{t h}

gas in gaseous mixture,

p_{i}^{\circ}

= pressure of

i^{t h}

gas in pure state)

(1)

p = p_{1} + p_{2} + p_{3}

(2)

p = n_{1} \frac{RT}{V} + n_{2} \frac{RT}{V} + n_{3} \frac{RT}{V}

(3)

p_{i} = χ_{i} p

(4)

p_{i} = χ_{i} p_{i}^{\circ}

Q53Single correctThe Solid State

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):
In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.

Reason (R):
In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q54Single correctEquilibrium

The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is

[Given

p K_{a}

CH_{3} COOH = 4.57

]

(1)

5.57

(2)

3.57

(3)

4.57

(4)

2.57

Q55Single correctThe s-Block Elements

Identify the incorrect statement from the following

(1)

Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.

(2)

The oxidation number of K in

KO_{2}

is +4.

(3)

Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.

(4)

Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.

Q56Single correctAlcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Given below are two statements

Statement I:
The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group.

Statement II:
o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q57Single correctSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry

What mass of 95% pure

CaCO_{3}

will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?

CaCO_{3 (s)} + 2 HCl_{(a q)} \to CaCl_{2 (a q)} + CO_{2 (g)} + H_{2} O_{(l)}

[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

(1)

1.25 g

(2)

1.32 g

(3)

3.65 g

(4)

9.50 g

Q58Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity

The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

(1)

ununennium

(2)

unnilennium

(3)

unununnium

(4)

ununoctium

Q59Single correctThe p-Block Elements (Group 14)

Choose the correct statement:

(1)

Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.

(2)

Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.

(3)

Diamond is

sp^{3}

hybridised and graphite is

sp^{2}

hybridized.

(4)

Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.

Q60Single correctSurface Chemistry

Given below are two statements

Statement I:
In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order

Al^{3 +} > Ba^{2 +} > Na^{+}

Statement II:
In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order

NaCl > Na_{2} SO_{4} > Na_{3} PO_{4}

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q61Single correctThermodynamics

Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?

(1)

A closed loop traced on the p-V plane, labelled Isothermal

(2)

A falling p-V curve labelled Isothermal that runs across the full width of the volume axis, from the smallest to the largest volume shown

(3)

A vertical straight line at constant volume, labelled Isothermal

(4)

A falling p-V curve labelled Isothermal that ends after only a small increase in volume, well short of the right-hand end of the volume axis

Q62Single correctAmines

Given below are two statements

Statement I:
Primary aliphatic amines react with

HNO_{2}

to give unstable diazonium salts.

Statement II:
Primary aromatic amines react with

HNO_{2}

to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q63Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

(1)

The bond orders of

O_{2}^{+}, O_{2}, O_{2}^{-}

and

O_{2}^{2 -}

are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively

(2)

C_{2}

molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate

π

molecular orbitals

(3)

H_{2}^{+}

ion has one electron

(4)

O_{2}^{+}

ion is diamagnetic

Q64Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

RMgX + CO_{2} dry ether Y H_{3} O^{+} RCOOH

What is Y in the above reaction?

(1)

RCOO^{-} Mg^{+} X

(2)

R_{3} CO^{-} Mg^{+} X

(3)

RCOO^{-} X^{+}

(4)

(RCOO)_{2} Mg

Q65Single correctPolymers

Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

(1)

Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces

(2)

Fibers possess high tensile strength

(3)

Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively

(4)

Thermosetting polymers are reusable

Q66Single correctElectrochemistry

Given below are half cell reactions:

MnO_{4}^{-} + 8 H^{+} + 5 e^{-} \to Mn^{2 +} + 4 H_{2} O

E_{Mn^{2 -} / MnO_{4}^{-}}^{\circ} = - 1.510 V

\frac{1}{2} O_{2} + 2 H^{+} + 2 e^{-} \to H_{2} O

E_{O_{2} / H_{2} O}^{\circ} = + 1.223 V

Will the permanganate ion,

MnO_{4}^{-}

liberate

O_{2}

from water in the presence of an acid?

(1)

Yes, because

E_{cell}^{\circ} = + 0.287 V

(2)

No, because

E_{cell}^{\circ} = - 0.287 V

(3)

Yes, because

E_{cell}^{\circ} = + 2.733 V

(4)

No, because

E_{cell}^{\circ} = - 2.733 V

Q67Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques

The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?

(1)

Nitrobenzene,

C_{6} H_{5} NO_{2}

(2)

Pyridine,

C_{5} H_{5} N

(3)

Aniline,

C_{6} H_{5} NH_{2}

(4)

Azobenzene,

C_{6} H_{5} - N = N - C_{6} H_{5}

Q68Single correctBiomolecules

The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is

(1)

Enzymes are biocatalysts.

(2)

Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.

(3)

Enzymes are polysaccharides.

(4)

Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.

Q69Single correctCoordination Compounds

The IUPAC name of the complex-

[Ag (H_{2} O)_{2}] [Ag (CN)_{2}]

is:

(1)

dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)

(2)

diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)

(3)

dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)

(4)

diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)

Q70Single correctChemistry in Everyday Life

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List-I (Drug class)	List-II (Drug molecule)
(a). Antacids	(i). Salvarsan
(b). Antihistamines	(ii). Morphine
(c). Analgesics	(iii). Cimetidine
(d). Antimicrobials	(iv). Seldane

(1)

(a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

(2)

(a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(3)

(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

(4)

(a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Q71Single correctThe p-Block Elements (Group 17 and 18)

Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?

(1)

ClF_{3}

(2)

IF_{5}

(3)

SF_{4}

(4)

XeF_{2}

Q72Single correctElectrochemistry

At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of

Cu^{2 +}

/ Cu,

Zn^{2 +}

/ Zn,

Fe^{2 +}

/ Fe and

Ag^{+}

/ Ag are 0.34 V,

- 0.76

- 0.44

V and 0.80 V, respectively.

On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?

(1)

CuSO_{4} (aq) + Zn (s) \to ZnSO_{4} (aq) + Cu (s)

(2)

CuSO_{4} (aq) + Fe (s) \to FeSO_{4} (aq) + Cu (s)

(3)

FeSO_{4} (aq) + Zn (s) \to ZnSO_{4} (aq) + Fe (s)

(4)

2 CuSO_{4} (aq) + 2 Ag (s) \to 2 Cu (s) + Ag_{2} SO_{4} (aq)

Q73Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements

Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

(1)

All the five

5 d

orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective

4 d

orbitals.

(2)

All the five

4 d

orbitals have shapes similar to the respective

3 d

orbitals.

(3)

In an atom, all the five

3 d

orbitals are equal in energy in free state.

(4)

The shapes of

d_{x y}

d_{yz}

and

d_{z x}

orbitals are similar to each other; and

d_{x^{2} - y^{2}}

and

d_{z^{2}}

are similar to each other.

Q74Single correctSolutions

In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is

(1)

500 mL of solvent

(2)

500 g of solvent

(3)

100 mL of solvent

(4)

1000 g of solvent

Q75Single correctThe p-Block Elements (Group 17)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): ICl is more reactive than

I_{2}

.

Reason (R): I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q76Single correctHydrocarbons / Aromaticity

Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?

(1)

Cyclopentadienyl anion

(2)

Cycloheptatrienyl (tropylium) cation

(3)

Cyclopropenyl cation

(4)

Cyclohepta-1,3,5-triene

Q77Single correctThe p-Block Elements (Group 16)

Given below are two statements
Statement I
The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order –

H_{2} O < H_{2} S < H_{2} Se < H_{2} Te

Statement II
The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q78Single correctThe s-Block Elements

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List-I	List-II
a. Li	i. absorbent for carbon dioxide
b. Na	ii. electrochemical cells
c. KOH	iii. coolant in fast breeder reactors
d. Cs	iv. photoelectric cell

(1)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

(2)

(a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(3)

(a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

(4)

(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

Q79Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes

Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?

(1)

Benzene,

Cl_{2}

, anhydrous

FeCl_{3}

(2)

Phenol,

NaNO_{2}

, HCl, CuCl

(3)

Benzene with HCl

(4)

Aniline (

C_{6} H_{5} NH_{2}

) with HCl, Heating

Q80Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole interactions.
Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than that the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q81Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I	List-II
a. Cyanohydrin	i. $NH_{2} OH$
b. Acetal	ii. $RNH_{2}$
c. Schiff's base	iii. alcohol
d. Oxime	iv. HCN

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)

(a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(2)

(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

(3)

(a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(4)

(a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

Q82Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes

The incorrect statement regarding chirality is

(1)

S_{N} 1

reaction yields

1 : 1

mixture of both enantiomers

(2)

The product obtained by

S_{N} 2

reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of configuration

(3)

Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other

(4)

A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation

Q83Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I	List-II
a. $MgH_{2}$	i. Electron precise
b. $GeH_{4}$	ii. Electron deficient
c. $B_{2} H_{6}$	iii. Electron rich
d. HF	iv. Ionic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)

(a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

(2)

(a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

(3)

(a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

(4)

(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Q84Single correctThe p-Block Elements (Group 13)

Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

(1)

There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.

(2)

The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.

(3)

The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.

(4)

Both the Boron atoms are

s p^{2}

hybridised.

Q85Single correctChemical Kinetics

The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction.
The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are

(1)

zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y =

t_{1/2}

and x = concentration)

(2)

zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x = concentration)

(3)

zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y =

t_{1/2}

and x = concentration)

(4)

zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x =

t_{1/2}

)

Q86Single correctGeneral Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (Ores): (a) Haematite (b) Magnetite (c) Calamine (d) Kaolinite
List-II (Composition): (i)

Fe_{3} O_{4}

(ii)

ZnCO_{3}

(iii)

Fe_{2} O_{3}

(iv)

[Al_{2} (OH)_{4} Si_{2} O_{5}]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Q87Single correctStates of Matter / Thermodynamics

A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27°C. (Assume

O_{2}

gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar

K^{- 1}

l^{- 1}

)

(1)

2.5

(2)

498.6

(3)

49.8

(4)

4.9

Q88Single correctChemical Kinetics

For a first order reaction A

\to

Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in mi

n^{- 1}

(1)

1.3818

(2)

0.9212

(3)

0.4606

(4)

0.2303

Q89Single correctCoordination Compounds

The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes
(A)

[Ni(H_{2} O)_{2} (en)_{2}]^{2 +}

(B)

[Ni(H_{2} O)_{4} (en)]^{2 +}

and
(C)

[Ni(en)_{3}]^{2 +}

(1)

(A) > (B) > (C)

(2)

(C) > (B) > (A)

(3)

(C) > (A) > (B)

(4)

(B) > (A) > (C)

Q90Single correctEquilibrium

3 O_{2} (g) ⇌ 2 O_{3} (g)

for the above reaction at 298 K,

K_{C}

is found to be

3.0 \times 1 0^{- 59}

. If the concentration of

O_{2}

at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of

O_{3}

in M is

(1)

4.38 \times 1 0^{- 32}

(2)

1.9 \times 1 0^{- 63}

(3)

2.4 \times 1 0^{31}

(4)

1.2 \times 1 0^{21}

Q91Single correctElectrochemistry

Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K

Ni(s) + 2 Ag^{+} (0.001 M) \to Ni^{2 +} (0.001 M) + 2 Ag(s)

(Given that E_{cell}^{\circ} = 1.05 V, \frac{2.303 RT}{F} = 0.059 at 298 K)

(1)

1.0385 V

(2)

1.385 V

(3)

0.9615 V

(4)

1.05 V

Q92Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?

(1)

4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one

(2)

5-Ethyl-4-methylhept-4-en-3-one

(3)

4-Methylhept-3-en-2-one

(4)

3-Ethyl-4-methylpent-3-en-2-one

Q93Single correctAlcohols, Phenols and Ethers / Nomenclature

The correct IUPAC name of the compound

BrCH_{2} - CH_{2} - CH(OH) - CH (CH_{3}) - CH(Cl) - CH_{3}

(1)

1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol

(2)

6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol

(3)

1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol

(4)

6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol

Q94Single correctStructure of Atom

If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He

^{+}

ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of L

i^{2 +}

ion?

(1)

158.7 pm

(2)

15.87 pm

(3)

1.587 pm

(4)

158.7 Å

Q95Single correctHydrocarbons / Aldehydes and Ketones

Compound X on reaction with

O_{3}

followed by Zn/

H_{2} O

gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is

(1)

3-Methylbut-1-ene

(2)

2-Methylbut-1-ene

(3)

2-Methylbut-2-ene

(4)

Pent-2-ene

Q96Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements / Redox Reactions

In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMn

O_{4}

oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from

(1)

+7 to +4

(2)

+6 to +4

(3)

+7 to +3

(4)

+6 to +5

Q97Single correctEnvironmental Chemistry

The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:
(a) particulate matter
(b) ozone
(c) hydrocarbons
(d) hydrogen peroxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

(a), (d) only

(2)

(a), (b), (d) only

(3)

(b), (c), (d) only

(4)

(a), (c), (d) only

Q98Single correctAlcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnC

l_{2}

known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II:
Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q99Single correctThe Solid State

Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of

3.608 \times 1 0^{- 8}

cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g c

m^{- 3}

. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

(1)

63.1 u

(2)

31.55 u

(3)

60 u

(4)

65 u

Q100Single correctAmines / Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

(1)

Benzamide (

C_{6} H_{5} CONH_{2}

)

(2)

Benzyl diazonium chloride (

C_{6} H_{5} CH_{2} N_{2}^{+} Cl^{-}

)

(3)

Benzyl chloride (

C_{6} H_{5} CH_{2} Cl

)

(4)

Benzyl alcohol (

C_{6} H_{5} CH_{2} OH

)

Biology100 questions

Q101Single correctBiotechnology: Principles and Processes

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :
Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R) :
The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q102Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :

(1)

The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

(2)

The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

(3)

Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA

(4)

The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

Q103Single correctPlant Growth and Development

The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :

(1)

speed up the malting process

(2)

promote root growth and roothair formation to increase the absorption surface

(3)

help overcome apical dominance

(4)

kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields

Q104Single correctBiomolecules

Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :

(1)

Cutin

(2)

Cellulose

(3)

Chitin

(4)

Glucosamine

Q105Single correctTransport in Plants

Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?

(1)

Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells

(2)

The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane

(3)

The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming

(4)

Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement

Q106Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Which of the following is not a method of ex\ situ conservation?

(1)

In\ vitro fertilization

(2)

National Parks

(3)

Micropropagation

(4)

Cryopreservation

Q107Single correctMineral Nutrition

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List-I	List-II
(a). Manganese	(i). Activates the enzyme catalase
(b). Magnesium	(ii). Required for pollen germination
(c). Boron	(iii). Activates enzymes of respiration
(d). Iron	(iv). Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis

(1)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(4)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Q108Single correctBiotechnology: Principles and Processes

Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

(1)

The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

(2)

The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.

(3)

The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.

(4)

Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.

Q109Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

(1)

Breakdown of proton gradient

(2)

Breakdown of electron gradient

(3)

Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma

(4)

Reduction of NADP to NADP

H_{2}

on the stroma side of the membrane

Q110Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :

(1)

Genetic mapping

(2)

DNA finger printing

(3)

Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing

(4)

Translation

Q111Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:

(1)

Population explosion

(2)

Competition

(3)

Biodiversity loss

(4)

Natality

Q112Single correctEnvironmental Issues

The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is :

(1)

STP

(2)

Incinerator

(3)

Electrostatic Precipitator

(4)

Catalytic Convertor

Q113Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?

(1)

Cotton

(2)

Coriander

(3)

Buttercup

(4)

Maize

Q114Single correctOrganisms and Populations

Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

(1)

It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community

(2)

It might lead to extinction of a species

(3)

Both the interacting species are negatively impacted

(4)

It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance

Q115Single correctRespiration in Plants

What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

(1)

Approximately 15%

(2)

More than 18%

(3)

About 10%

(4)

Less than 7%

Q116Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance.
Statement II :
Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q117Single correctEcosystem

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q118Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements :
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

(b), (d), (e) Only

(2)

(a), (c), (d) Only

(3)

(b), (e) Only

(4)

(a), (c), (e) Only

Q119Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?

(1)

Colchicum\ autumnale

(2)

Pisum\ sativum

(3)

Allium\ cepa

(4)

Solanum\ nigrum

Q120Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

In all trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to :
(a) secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.
(c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.
(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

(a) and (b) Only

(2)

(3)

(d) and (e) Only

(4)

(b) and (d) Only

Q121Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

Read the following statements about the vascular bundles
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

(a), (b) and (d) Only

(2)

(b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(3)

(a), (b), (c) and (d) Only

(4)

(a), (c), (d) and (e) Only

Q122Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

(1)

Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes

(2)

Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles

(3)

Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(4)

Coiling and condensation of the chromatids

Q123Single correctPlant Growth and Development

Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants :

(1)

ABA

(2)

Gibberellin

(3)

Ethylene

(4)

Cytokinin

Q124Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(a) Mustard
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Cassia
(d) Datura
(e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

(a), (b), (c) Only

(2)

(b), (c) Only

(3)

(d), (e) Only

(4)

(c), (d), (e) Only

Q125Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Identify the correct set of statements :
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in

C i t r u s

and

B o ug ain v i ll e a

(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in

Op u n t ia

and modified to perform the function of leaves
(d)

R hi zo p h or a

shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration
(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

(b) and (c) Only

(2)

(a) and (d) Only

(3)

(b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(4)

(a), (b), (d) and (e) Only

Q126Single correctBiological Classification

Which of the following is

incorrectly

matched?

(1)

Ectocarpus

– Fucoxanthin

(2)

Ulothrix

– Mannitol

(3)

Porphyra

- Floridean starch

(4)

Volvox

– Starch

Q127Single correctMineral Nutrition

Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of

Alnus

(1)

Rhizobium

(2)

Frankia

(3)

Rhodospirillum

(4)

Beijerinckia

Q128Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Identify the

incorrect

statement related to Pollination :

(1)

Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants

(2)

Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination

(3)

Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated

(4)

Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects

Q129Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II :
Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q130Single correctBiological Classification

Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

(1)

Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

(2)

Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

(3)

Rhodophyceae only

(4)

Phaeophyceae only

Q131Single correctRespiration in Plants

What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

(1)

Four

(2)

Six

(3)

Two

(4)

Eight

Q132Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :

(1)

Synaptonemal complex

(2)

Bivalent

(3)

Sites at which crossing over occurs

(4)

Terminalization

Q133Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
The primary

CO_{2}

acceptor in

C_{4}

plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II :
Mesophyll cells of

C_{4}

plants lack RuBisCo enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q134Single correctTransport in Plants

"Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:

(1)

water is transported

(2)

food is transported

(3)

for both water and food transportation

(4)

osmosis is observed

Q135Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

XO type of sex determination can be found in :

(1)

Drosophila

(2)

Birds

(3)

Grasshoppers

(4)

Monkeys

Q136Single correctTransport in Plants

Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :

(1)

raise its water potential

(2)

lower its water potential

(3)

make its water potential zero

(4)

not affect the water potential at all

Q137Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :

(1)

Sequence annotation

(2)

Gene mapping

(3)

Expressed sequence tags

(4)

Bioinformatics

Q138Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?

(1)

Sickle cell anaemia

(2)

Myotonic dystrophy

(3)

Haemophilia

(4)

Thalassemia

Q139Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q140Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?

(1)

A → Mesocarp

(2)

B → Endocarp

(3)

C → Thalamus

(4)

D → Seed

Q141Single correctBiomolecules

Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more

c = c

bonds
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1)

(a), (b) and (c) only

(2)

(a), (d) and (e) only

(3)

(c), (d) and (e) only

(4)

(a), (b) and (d) only

Q142Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?

(1)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

(2)

Gene Silencing

(3)

Autoradiography

(4)

Gene sequencing

Q143Single correctOrganisms and Populations

While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (

-

) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (

-

) for another species involved in the interaction?

(1)

Predation

(2)

Amensalism

(3)

Commensalism

(4)

Competition

Q144Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?

(1)

5^{'} GATACT 3^{'}; 3^{'} CTATGA 5^{'}

(2)

5^{'} GAATTC 3^{'}; 3^{'} CTTAAG 5^{'}

(3)

5^{'} CTCAGT 3^{'}; 3^{'} GAGTCA 5^{'}

(4)

5^{'} GTATTC 3^{'}; 3^{'} CATAAG 5^{'}

Q145Single correctEcosystem

Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?

(1)

Burning of fossil fuels

(2)

Volcanic activity

(3)

Weathering of rocks

(4)

Rain fall and storms

Q146Single correctEnvironmental Issues

The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?

(1)

CNG burns more efficiently than diesel

(2)

The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low

(3)

It is cheaper than diesel

(4)

It cannot be adulterated like diesel

Q147Single correctPlant Kingdom

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List-I	List-II
(a). $Spirogyra$	(i). Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte
(b). Fern	(ii). Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
(c). $Funaria$	(iii). Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus
(d). $Cycas$	(iv). Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte

(1)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(2)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Q148Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

List-I	List-II
(a). Metacentric chromosome	(i). Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms
(b). Acrocentric chromosome	(ii). Centromere at the terminal end
(c). Submetacentric	(iii). Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes
(d). Telocentric chromosome	(iv). Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm

(1)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(2)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4)

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Q149Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.
(a) It is also called as the earlywood
(b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
(c) It is lighter in colour
(d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings
(e) It has lower density
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)

(a), (b), (d) and (e) Only

(2)

(a), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(3)

(a), (b) and (d) Only

(4)

(c), (d) and (e) Only

Q150Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in

C_{4}

plants?

(1)

To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway

(2)

To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle

(3)

To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature

(4)

To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity

Q151Single correctDigestion and Absorption

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.

Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q152Single correctHuman Reproduction

Given below are two statements:

Statement I :
The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.

Statement II :
Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q153Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?

(1)

It clears inhaled air from foreign particles

(2)

Inhaled air is humidified

(3)

Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature

(4)

Provides surface for diffusion of

O_{2}

and

CO_{2}

Q154Single correctMicrobes in Human Welfare

Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :

(1)

Trichoderma polysporum

(2)

Clostridium butylicum

(3)

Aspergillus niger

(4)

Streptococcus cerevisiae

Q155Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ____ ml of

O_{2}

to the tissues.

(1)

2 ml

(2)

5 ml

(3)

4 ml

(4)

10 ml

Q156Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Tegmina in cockroach, arises from

(1)

Prothorax

(2)

Mesothorax

(3)

Metathorax

(4)

Prothorax and Mesothorax

Q157Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

In-situ

conservation refers to:

(1)

Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem

(2)

Conserve only high-risk species

(3)

Conserve only endangered species

(4)

Conserve only extinct species

Q158Single correctEcosystem

Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:

(1)

Catabolism

(2)

Fragmentation

(3)

Humification

(4)

Decomposition

Q159Single correctBiomolecules

A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is

C_{6} H_{12} O_{6}

then what is the formula for maltose?

(1)

C_{12} H_{20} O_{10}

(2)

C_{12} H_{24} O_{12}

(3)

C_{12} H_{22} O_{11}

(4)

C_{12} H_{24} O_{11}

Q160Single correctReproduction in Organisms

Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with

Penicillium

(1)

Zoospores

(2)

Conidia

(3)

Gemmules

(4)

Buds

Q161Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:

(1)

All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase

(2)

Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes

(3)

Chromosomes decondense at telophase

(4)

Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase

Q162Single correctCell : The Unit of Life

Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

(1)

RER has ribosomes attached to ER

(2)

SER is devoid of ribosomes

(3)

In prokaryotes only RER are present

(4)

SER are the sites for lipid synthesis

Q163Single correctAnimal Kingdom

In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?

(1)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

(2)

Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

(3)

Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species

(4)

Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species

Q164Single correctDigestion and Absorption

In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

(1)

Corvus, Columba, Chameleon

(2)

Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

(3)

Catla, Columba, Crocodilus

(4)

Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus

Q165Single correctBiological Classification

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.

Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q166Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(1)

Blood

(2)

Adipose tissue

(3)

Cartilage

(4)

Neuroglia

Q167Single correctExcretory Products and their Elimination

Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :

(1)

Ornithorhynchus

(2)

Salamandra

(3)

Hippocampus

(4)

Pavo

Q168Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q169Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?

(1)

Arthritis – Inflammed joints

(2)

Tetany – High

Ca^{2 +}

level causing rapid spasms.

(3)

Myasthenia gravis – Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle

(4)

Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

Q170Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.

Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4)

(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q171Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

In an E.\ coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?

(1)

Only

z

gene will get transcribed

(2)

z

y

a

genes will be transcribed

(3)

z

y

a

genes will not be translated

(4)

RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region

Q172Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?

(1)

3.3 \times 1 0^{9}

(2)

6.6 \times 1 0^{9}

(3)

3.3 \times 1 0^{6}

(4)

6.6 \times 1 0^{6}

Q173Single correctHuman Reproduction

Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?

(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes

(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis

(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population

(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary

(e) It is initiated at puberty

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

(2)

(b) and (c) only

(3)

(b), (d) and (e) only

(4)

(b), (c) and (e) only

Q174Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?

(1)

Intercalated discs

(2)

Cartilage

(3)

Areolar tissue

(4)

Smooth muscle

Q175Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

(1)

There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II

(2)

DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II

(3)

Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I

(4)

Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II

Q176Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II:
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q177Single correctEvolution

Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to

(1)

Stabilising change

(2)

Directional change

(3)

Disruptive change

(4)

Random change

Q178Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q179Single correctMicrobes in Human Welfare

Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :

(1)

Bio-magnification

(2)

Bio-remediation

(3)

Bio-fortification

(4)

Bio-accumulation

Q180Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :

(1)

Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.

(2)

Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages

(3)

Lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body.

(4)

Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.

Q181Single correctHuman Reproduction

At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

(1)

Puberty

(2)

Embryonic development stage

(3)

Birth

(4)

Adult

Q182Single correctReproductive Health

Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

(1)

Cervical barrier

(2)

Vault barrier

(3)

Non-Medicated IUD

(4)

Copper releasing IUD

Q183Single correctDigestion and Absorption

Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?

(1)

Control bacterial population in mouth

(2)

Digestion of complex carbohydrates

(3)

Lubrication of oral cavity

(4)

Digestion of disaccharides

Q184Single correctOrganisms and Populations

If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is _______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1)

0.1

(2)

10

(3)

1.0

(4)

zero

Q185Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement II:
Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q186Single correctBiological Classification

Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1)

Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera.

(2)

Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.

(3)

Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.

(4)

Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.

Q187Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

Statements related to human Insulin are given below.
Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in

E . co l i

, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

(a), (b) and (d) only

(2)

(b) only

(3)

(4)

(c), (d) and (e) only

Q188Single correctEnvironmental Issues

Given below are two statements:
Statements I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.
Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q189Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?

(1)

a, d, b, c

(2)

d, b, a, c

(3)

a, b, c, d

(4)

a, c, b, d

Q190Single correctBiomolecules

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List-I (Biological Molecules)	List-II (Biological functions)
(a). Glycogen	(i). Hormone
(b). Globulin	(ii). Biocatalyst
(c). Steroids	(iii). Antibody
(d). Thrombin	(iv). Storage product

(1)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(2)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

(3)

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

(4)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Q191Single correctReproductive Health

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List-I	List-II
(a). Diaphragms	(i). Inhibit ovulation and Implantation
(b). Contraceptive Pills	(ii). Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
(c). Intra Uterine Devices	(iii). Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
(d). Lactational Amenorrhea	(iv). They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms

(1)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

(2)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

(3)

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

(4)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

Q192Single correctChemical Coordination and Integration

Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases C

a^{2 +}

level in blood
(c) Reabsorption of C

a^{2 +}

by renal tubules
(d) Decreases the absorption of C

a^{2 +}

from digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)

(a) and (c) only

(2)

(b), (d) and (e) only

(3)

(a) and (e) only

(4)

(b) and (c) only

Q193Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

(1)

Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.

(2)

Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.

(3)

Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.

(4)

Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.

Q194Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Ten E.coli cells with

^{15}

N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing

^{14}

N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from

^{15}

(1)

20 cells

(2)

40 cells

(3)

60 cells

(4)

80 cells

Q195Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?

(1)

25%

(2)

50%

(3)

75%

(4)

100%

Q196Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

(1)

Presence of origin of replication

(2)

Presence of a marker gene

(3)

Presence of single restriction enzyme site

(4)

Presence of two or more recognition sites

Q197Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List-I	List-II
(a). Bronchioles	(i). Dense Regular Connective Tissue
(b). Goblet Cell	(ii). Loose Connective Tissue
(c). Tendons	(iii). Glandular Tissue
(d). Adipose Tissue	(iv). Ciliated Epithelium

(1)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

(2)

(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

(3)

(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

(4)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Q198Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1)

The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction

(2)

The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria

(3)

Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.

(4)

Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.

Q199Single correctNeural Control and Coordination

Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :

(1)

The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.

(2)

Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.

(3)

Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters

(4)

Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.

Q200Single correctEvolution

Which of the following statements is not true?

(1)

Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution

(2)

Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy

(3)

Homology indicates common ancestry

(4)

Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are in the NEET 2022 Jul 17 paper?

The NEET 2022 Jul 17 paper has 200 questions — Physics (50), Chemistry (50) and Biology (100). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.

What is the marking scheme for NEET?

NEET awards +4 marks for each correct answer and −1 for a wrong answer, with 0 for questions left unattempted. The paper covers Physics, Chemistry and Biology across 180 questions for 720 marks.

Are the answer key and step-by-step solutions provided for the 2022 Jul 17 paper?

Yes — every question shows the correct answer (answer key) and a detailed step-by-step solution, free to read online.

Can I take the NEET 2022 Jul 17 paper as a timed mock test?

Yes. With a free NEETnify account you can attempt this exact paper as a timed test in the real exam interface, then see your score and weak-area analysis.

Solved this paper? Calculate your NEET score · most important chapters · formula sheets · all free tools.