Match Column 1 with Column 2

A → b and c; B → b and c; C → b and d; D → a and d

NEET 2016 May 01 Question Paper with Solutions

All 179 questions from the NEET 2016 (May 01) paper — Physics (45), Chemistry (44) and Biology (90) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.Physics PYQs 2016 Chemistry PYQs 2016 Biology PYQs 2016

Questions: 179
Physics: 45
Chemistry: 44
Biology: 90

Physics45 questions

Q1Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about perpendicular axis & passing through the centre?

(1)

15 M R^{2} /32

(2)

13 M R^{2} /32

(3)

11 M R^{2} /32

(4)

9 M R^{2} /32

Q2Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism

A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I. the net force on the loop will be:

A long vertical straight conductor XY carries current I upward. To its right, coplanar with it, is a square loop ABCD of side L carrying current i, with B top-left, C top-right, A bottom-left and D bottom-right. The near side AB is a distance L/2 from the conductor, and the loop spans a further distance L to the right.

(1)

\frac{2 μ _{0} I i}{3 π}

(2)

\frac{μ _{0} I i}{2 π}

(3)

\frac{2 μ _{0} I i L}{3 π}

(4)

\frac{μ _{0} I i L}{2 π}

Q3Single correctMagnetism and Matter

The magnetic suscepetibility is negative for

(1)

diamagnetic material only

(2)

paramagnetic material only

(3)

ferromagnetic material only

(4)

Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials

Q4Single correctWaves

A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a a speed of 15 m

s^{- 1}

. Then , the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is :

(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 m

s^{- 1}

)

(1)

765 Hz

(2)

800 Hz

(3)

838 Hz

(4)

885 Hz

Q5Single correctElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance

A capacitor of 2

μ

F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turn to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:

A 2 microfarad capacitor connected through a two-way switch S. In position 1 it is charged by a V volt battery; throwing S to position 2 disconnects the battery and connects the charged capacitor across an uncharged 8 microfarad capacitor.

(1)

(2)

20%

(3)

75%

(4)

80%

Q6Single correctWave Optics

In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle 3

0^{\circ}

when light of wavelength 5000

A \circ

is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:

(1)

sin^{- 1} (\frac{1}{4})

(2)

sin^{- 1} (\frac{2}{3})

(3)

sin^{- 1} (\frac{1}{2})

(4)

sin^{- 1} (\frac{3}{4})

Q7Single correctGravitation

At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are

- 5.4 \times 1 0^{7}

J k

g^{- 1}

and 6.0 m

s^{- 2}

respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:

(1)

2600 km

(2)

1600 km

(3)

1400 km

(4)

2000 km

Q8Single correctElectromagnetic Waves

Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?

(1)

A charge moving at constant velocity

(2)

A stationary charge

(3)

A chargeless particle

(4)

An accelerating charge

Q9Single correctElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d

<<

l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from the both the sphere at a constant rate. As a result, the sphere approach each other with a velocity

υ

. Then

υ

varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres as :

(1)

υ \propto x^{\frac{1}{2}}

(2)

υ \propto x

(3)

υ \propto x^{- \frac{1}{2}}

(4)

υ \propto x^{- 1}

Q10Single correctWaves

A uniform rope of length L and mass

m_{1}

hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass

m_{2}

is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength

λ_{1}

is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is

λ_{2}

. The ratio

λ_{2} / λ_{1}

is:

(1)

\frac{m _{1}}{m _{2}}

(2)

\frac{m _{1} + m _{2}}{m _{2}}

(3)

\frac{m _{2}}{m _{1}}

(4)

\frac{m _{1} + m _{2}}{m _{1}}

Q11Single correctThermodynamics

A refrigerator works between 4

^{\circ}

C and 30

^{\circ}

C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is:

(Take 1 cal = 4.2 joules)

(1)

2.365 W

(2)

23.65 W

(3)

236.5 W

(4)

2365 W

Q12Single correctWaves

An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a turning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same turning fork is:

(1)

66.7 cm

(2)

100 cm

(3)

150 cm

(4)

200 cm

Q13Single correctSemiconductor Electronics

Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:

A series circuit from terminal A at +4 V to terminal B at -6 V. Going from A to B the branch contains a junction diode with its triangle pointing from A towards B, followed by a 1 kilo-ohm resistor.

(1)

0

(2)

1 0^{- 2}

(3)

1 0^{- 1}

(4)

1 0^{- 3}

Q14Single correctCurrent Electricity

The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at

-

t^{2}

, where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:

(1)

\frac{a ^{3} R}{6 b}

(2)

\frac{a ^{3} R}{3 b}

(3)

\frac{a ^{3} R}{2 b}

(4)

\frac{a ^{3} R}{b}

Q15Single correctThermal Properties of Matter

A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is

U_{1}

. At wavelength 500 nm is

U_{2}

and that at 1000 nm is

U_{3}

. Wien's constant, b = 2.88

\times

0^{6}

nmK. Which of the following is correct?

(1)

U_{1} = 0

(2)

U_{3} = 0

(3)

U_{1} > U_{2}

(4)

U_{2} > U_{1}

Q16Single correctThermal Properties of Matter

Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are

α_{1}

and

α_{2}

. Lengths of brass and steel rods are

l_{1}

and

l_{2}

respectively. If (

l_{2}

-

l_{1}

) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?

(1)

α_{1} l_{2} = α_{2} l_{1}

(2)

α_{1} l_{2}^{2} = α_{2} l_{1}^{2}

(3)

α_{1}^{2} l_{2} = α_{2}^{2} l_{1}

(4)

α_{1} l_{1} = α_{2} l_{2}

Q17Single correctSemiconductor Electronics

A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800

Ω

is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. Of the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192

Ω

, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:

(1)

4, 3.84

(2)

3.69, 3.84

(3)

4, 4

(4)

4, 3.69

Q18Single correctWave Optics

The intensity of the maximum in a Young's double slit experiment is

I_{0}

. Distance between two slits is d = 5

λ

, where

λ

is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d?

(1)

I_{0}

(2)

\frac{I _{0}}{4}

(3)

\frac{3}{4} I_{0}

(4)

\frac{I _{0}}{2}

Q19Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad

s^{- 2}

. Its net acceleration in m

s^{- 2}

at the end of 2.0 s is approximately:

(1)

8.0

(2)

7.0

(3)

6.0

(4)

3.0

Q20Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter

An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is :

(1)

\frac{1}{c} (\frac{E}{2 m})^{\frac{1}{2}}

(2)

(\frac{E}{2 m})^{\frac{1}{2}}

(3)

c (2 m E)^{\frac{1}{2}}

(4)

\frac{1}{c} (\frac{2 m}{E})^{\frac{1}{2}}

Q21Single correctSystems of Particles and Rotational Motion

A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and lengths. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?

(1)

Disk

(2)

Sphere

(3)

Both reach at the same time

(4)

Depends on their masses

Q22Single correctRay Optics and Optical Instruments

The angle of incidence for a ray light at a refracting surface of a prism is 4

5^{\circ}

. The angle of prism is 6

0^{\circ}

. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:

(1)

4 5^{\circ}; \frac{1}{2}

(2)

3 0^{\circ}; 2

(3)

4 5^{\circ}; 2

(4)

3 0^{\circ}; \frac{1}{2}

Q23Single correctAtoms

When an

α

- particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity '

υ

' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze', its distance of closet approach from the nucleus depends on m as:

(1)

\frac{1}{m}

(2)

\frac{1}{m}

(3)

\frac{1}{m ^{2}}

(4)

M

Q24Single correctLaws of Motion / Circular Motion

A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to

8 \times 1 0^{- 4}

J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?

(1)

0.1 m/s^{2}

(2)

0.15 m/s^{2}

(3)

0.18 m/s^{2}

(4)

0.2 m/s^{2}

Q25Single correctKinetic Theory of Gases

The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of

200 ms^{- 1}

27^{\circ}

C and

1.0 \times 1 0^{5} Nm^{- 2}

pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas respectively,

127^{\circ}

C and

0.05 \times 1 0^{5} Nm^{- 2}

, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in

ms^{- 1}

is:

(1)

1002

(2)

\frac{400}{3}

(3)

\frac{100 2}{3}

(4)

\frac{100}{3}

Q26Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism

A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:

(1)

\frac{1}{4}

(2)

\frac{1}{2}

(3)

1

(4)

4

Q27Single correctMotion in a Plane

A particle moves so that its position vector is given by

r = cos ω t \overset{x}{^} + sin ω t \overset{y}{^}

. Where

ω

is a constant. Which of the following is true?

(1)

Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to

r

(2)

Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to

r

(3)

Velocity is perpendicular to

r

and acceleration is directed towards the origin.

(4)

Velocity is perpendicular to

r

and acceleration is directed away from the origin.

Q28Single correctWork, Energy and Power

What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?

(1)

g R

(2)

2 g R

(3)

3 g R

(4)

5 g R

Q29Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter

When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength

λ

, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength

2 λ

, the stopping potential is

\frac{V}{4}

. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:

(1)

4 λ

(2)

5 λ

(3)

\frac{5}{2} λ

(4)

3 λ

Q30Single correctThermodynamics

A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:

(1)

Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.

(2)

Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done

(3)

Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount or work

(4)

Which of the case (wheather compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicty of the gas.

Q31Single correctCurrent Electricity

A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is:

(1)

5 : 1

(2)

5 : 4

(3)

3 : 4

(4)

3 : 2

Q32Single correctRay Optics and Optical Instruments

A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance

(1)

37.3

(2)

46.0

(3)

50.0

(4)

54.0

Q33Single correctMechanical Properties of Fluids

Two non-mixing liquids of densities

ρ

and

n ρ

(n > 1)

are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL

(p < 1)

in the denser liquids. The density d is equal to

(1)

{1 + (n + 1) p} ρ

(2)

{2 + (n + 1) p} ρ

(3)

{2 + (n - 1) p} ρ

(4)

{1 + (n - 1) p} ρ

Q34Single correctSemiconductor Electronics

To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

A two-stage logic circuit. Inputs A and B feed an OR gate; the OR gate output and input C feed an AND gate, whose output is Y.

(1)

A = 0, B = 1, C = 0

(2)

A = 1, B = 0, C = 0

(3)

A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

(4)

A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

Q35Single correctThermal Properties of Matter

A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one - quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all the energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is

3.4 \times 1 0^{5}

J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]

(1)

34

(2)

544

(3)

136

(4)

68

Q36Single correctGravitation

The ratio of escape velocity of earth

(v_{e})

to the escape velocity at a planet

(v_{p})

whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:

(1)

1 : 2

(2)

1 : 22

(3)

1 : 4

(4)

1 : 2

Q37Single correctMotion in a Plane

If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:

(1)

0^{\circ}

(2)

9 0^{\circ}

(3)

4 5^{\circ}

(4)

18 0^{\circ}

Q38Single correctAtoms

Given the value of Rydberg constant is

1 0^{7} m^{- 1}

, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:

(1)

0.025 \times 1 0^{4} m^{- 1}

(2)

0.5 \times 1 0^{7} m^{- 1}

(3)

0.25 \times 1 0^{7} m^{- 1}

(4)

2.5 \times 1 0^{7} m^{- 1}

Q39Single correctWork, Energy and Power

A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force

F = (2 t \hat{i} + 3 t^{2} \hat{j})

N, where i and j are unit along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?

(1)

(2 t^{2} + 3 t^{3})

(2)

(2 t^{2} + 4 t^{4})

(3)

(2 t^{3} + 3 t^{4})

(4)

(2 t^{3} + 3 t^{5})

Q40Single correctAlternating Current

An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50

μ

F and a resistor 40

Ω

are connected in series across a source of emf

V = 10 sin 340 t

. The power loss in A.C circuit is:

(1)

0.51

(2)

0.67

(3)

0.76

(4)

0.89

Q41Single correctMotion in a Straight Line

If the velocity of a particle is

v = A t + B t^{2}

, where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1 and 2s is:

(1)

\frac{3}{2} A + 4 B

(2)

3 A + 7 B

(3)

\frac{3}{2} A + \frac{7}{3} B

(4)

\frac{A}{2} + \frac{B}{3}

Q42Single correctElectromagnetic Induction

A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is

4 \times 1 0^{- 3}

Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:

(1)

4

(2)

3

(3)

2

(4)

1

Q43Single correctAlternating Current

A small signal voltage

V (t) = V_{0} sin ω t

is applied across an ideal capacitor C:

(1)

Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by

9 0^{\circ}

(2)

Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.

(3)

Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)

(4)

Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by

18 0^{\circ}

Q44Single correctRay Optics and Optical Instruments

Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2 [where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]

Column 1	Column 2
(A). $m = - 2$	(a). Convex mirror
(B). $m = - \frac{1}{2}$	(b). Concave mirror
(C). $m = + 2$	(c). Real image
(D). $m = + \frac{1}{2}$	(d). Virtual image

(1)

\to

b and c; B

\to

b and c; C

\to

b and d; D

\to

a and d

(2)

\to

a and c; B

\to

a and d; C

\to

a and b; D

\to

c and d

(3)

\to

a and d; B

\to

b and c; C

\to

b and d; D

\to

b and c

(4)

\to

c and d; B

\to

b and d; C

\to

b and c; D

\to

a and d

Q45Single correctLaws of Motion

A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle

θ

. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is

μ_{s}

. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:

(1)

g R^{2} \frac{μ _{s} + tan θ}{1 - μ _{s} tan θ}

(2)

\frac{g R ( μ _{s} + tan θ )}{1 - μ _{s} tan θ}

(3)

\frac{g}{R} \frac{μ _{s} + tan θ}{1 - μ _{s} tan θ}

(4)

\frac{g}{R ^{2}} \frac{μ _{s} + tan θ}{1 - μ _{s} tan θ}

Chemistry44 questions

Q46Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Consider the molecules

CH_{4}

NH_{3}

and

H_{2} O

. Which of the given statements is false?

(1)

The

H - C - H

bond angle in

CH_{4}

, the

H - N - H

bond angle in

NH_{3}

, and the

H - O - H

bond angle in

H_{2} O

are all greater than

9 0^{\circ}

(2)

The

H - O - H

bond angle in

H_{2} O

is larger than the

H - C - H

bond angle in

CH_{4}

(3)

The

H - O - H

bond angle in

H_{2} O

is smaller than the

H - N - H

bond angle in

NH_{3}

(4)

The

H - C - H

bond angle in

CH_{4}

is larger than the

H - N - H

bond angle in

NH_{3}

Q47Single correctHydrocarbons

In the reaction

H - C \equiv CH (1) NaNH_{2} / liq.NH_{3} (2) CH_{3} CH_{2} Br X (1) NaNH_{2} / liq.NH_{3} (2) CH_{3} CH_{2} Br Y

X and Y are :

(1)

X = 1 – Butyne; Y = 3 – Hexyne

(2)

X = 2 – Butyne; Y = 3 – Hexyne

(3)

X = 2- Butyne ; Y = 2- Hexyne

(4)

X = 1- Butyne ; Y = 2 – Hexyne

Q48Single correctThe p-Block Elements

Among the following the correct order of acidity is :

(1)

HClO_{3} < HClO_{4} < HClO_{2} < HClO

(2)

HClO < HClO_{2} < HClO_{3} < HClO_{4}

(3)

HClO_{2} < HClO < HClO_{3} < HClO_{4}

(4)

HClO_{4} < HClO_{2} < HClO < HClO_{3}

Q49Single correctChemical Kinetics

The rate of first order reaction is

0.04 mol l^{- 1} s^{- 1}

at 10 seconds and

0.03 mol l^{- 1} s^{- 1}

at 20 seconds after intiation of the reaction. The half – life period of the reaction is :

(1)

24.1 s

(2)

34.1 s

(3)

44.1 s

(4)

54.1 s

Q50Single correctSurface Chemistry

Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?

(1)

Δ G

is negative but

Δ H

and

Δ S

are positive

(2)

Δ G

Δ H

and

Δ S

all are negative

(3)

Δ G

and

Δ H

are negative but

Δ S

is positive

(4)

Δ G

and

Δ S

are negative but

Δ H

is positive

Q51Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity

In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

(1)

Al^{3 +} < Mg^{2 +} < Na^{+} < F^{-}

(increasing ionic size)

(2)

B < C < N < O

(increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

(3)

I < Br < Cl < F

(increasing electron gain enthalpy)

(4)

Li < Na < K < Rb

(increasing metallic radius)

Q52Single correctThe s-Block Elements

Which of the following statements is false?

(1)

Mg^{2 +}

ions form a complex with ATP.

(2)

Ca^{2 +}

ions are important in blood clotting

(3)

Ca^{2 +}

ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart

(4)

Mg^{2 +}

ions are important in the green parts of plants.

Q53Single correctHydrogen

Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?

(1)

Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common

(2)

Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts

(3)

Hydronium ion,

H_{3} O^{+}

exists freely in solution

(4)

Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent

Q54Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alphacarbon is :

(1)

A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.

(2)

A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde – ketone equilibration

(3)

A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidly equilibrium with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation

(4)

A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto – enol tautomerism.

Q55Single correctEquilibrium

MY and

NY_{3}

two nearly insoluble salts, have the same

k_{s p}

values of

6.2 \times 1 0^{- 13}

at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard of MY and

NY_{3}

(1)

The molar solubilities of MY and

NY_{3}

in water are indetical

(2)

The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of

NY_{3}

(3)

The salts MY and

NY_{3}

are more soluble in

0.5 M KY

than in pure water.

(4)

The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and

NY_{3}

will have no effect on their solubilities.

Q56Single correctBiomolecules

In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:

(1)

α

- glycosidic bond

(2)

β

- glycosidic bond

(3)

Peptide bond

(4)

Dative bond

Q57Single correctPolymers

Natural rubber has:

(1)

All cis – configuration

(2)

All trans – configuration

(3)

Alternate cis – and trans – configuration

(4)

Random cis – and trans – configuration

Q58Single correctGeneral Principles of Isolation of Elements

Match items of Column I with the item of Column II and assign the correct code :

Column I	Column II
(a). Cyanide process	(i). Ultrapure Ge
(b). Froth floatation process	(ii). Dressing of ZnS
(c). Electrolytic reduction	(iii). Extraction of Al
(d). Zone refining	(iv). Extraction of Au
	(v). Purification of Ni

(1)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(2)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i)

(4)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(v)

Q59Single correctThe p-Block Elements

Which one of the following statements is correct when

SO_{2}

is passed through acidified

K_{2} Cr_{2} O_{7}

solution?

(1)

The solution turns blue

(2)

The solution is decolorized

(3)

SO_{2}

is reduced.

(4)

Green

Cr_{2} (SO_{4})_{3}

is formed

Q60Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements

The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No.63), Gd (Atomic No.64 and Tb (Atomic No.65) are :

(1)

[Xe] 4 f^{7} 6 s^{2}

[Xe] 4 f^{8} 6 s^{2}

and

[Xe] 4 f^{8} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}

(2)

[Xe] 4 f^{6} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}

[Xe] 4 f^{7} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}

and

[Xe] 4 f^{9} 6 s^{2}

(3)

[Xe] 4 f^{6} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}

[Xe] 4 f^{7} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}

and

[Xe] 4 f^{8} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}

(4)

[Xe] 4 f^{7} 6 s^{2}

[Xe] 4 f^{7} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}

and

[Xe] 4 f^{9} 6 s^{2}

Q61Single correctStructure of Atom

Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :

(1)

Principle quantum number

(2)

Magnetic quantum number

(3)

Azimuthal quantum number

(4)

Spin quantum number

Q63Single correctAlcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?

(1)

Acetone

(2)

Ozone

(3)

MnO_{2}

(4)

Aluminium isopropoxide

Q64Single correctThermodynamics

The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature is :

(1)

Δ H < 0

and

Δ S = 0

(2)

Δ H > 0

and

Δ S < 0

(3)

Δ H < 0

and

Δ S > 0

(4)

Δ H < 0

and

Δ S < 0

Q65Single correctThe Solid State

Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is

530 kg m^{- 3}

and its atomic mass is

6.94 g mol^{- 1}

. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (

N_{A} = 6.02 \times 1 0^{23} mol^{- 1}

)

(1)

154 pm

(2)

352 pm

(3)

527 pm

(4)

264 pm

Q66Single correctThe p-Block Elements

Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules ?

(1)

I_{2} > Br_{2} > Cl_{2} > F_{2}

(2)

Cl_{2} > Br_{2} > F_{2} > I_{2}

(3)

Br_{2} > I_{2} > F_{2} > Cl_{2}

(4)

F_{2} > Cl_{2} > Br_{2} > I_{2}

Q67Single correctChemistry in Everyday Life

Which of the following is an analgesic ?

(1)

Novalgin

(2)

Penicillin

(3)

Streptomycin

(4)

Chloromycetion

Q68Single correctStates of Matter

Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?

(1)

1/8

(2)

1/4

(3)

3/8

(4)

1/2

Q69Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes / Aromatic Compounds

Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc.

H_{2} SO_{4}

and

HNO_{3}

. If a large amount of

KHSO_{4}

is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:

(1)

faster

(2)

slower

(3)

unchanged

(4)

doubled

Q70Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Predict the correct order among the following:

(1)

lone pair

-

lone pair

>

lone pair

-

bond pair

>

bond pair

-

bond pair

(2)

lone pair

-

lone pair

>

bond pair

-

bond pair

>

lone pair

-

bond pair

(3)

bond pair

-

bond pair

>

lone pair

-

bond pair

>

lone pair

-

lone pair

(4)

lone pair

-

bond pair

>

bond pair

-

bond pair

>

lone pair

-

lone pair

Q71Single correctThe p-Block / s-Block Elements

The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with

CaC_{2}

is:

(1)

Ca(CN)_{2}

(2)

CaCN

(3)

CaCN_{3}

(4)

Ca_{2} CN

Q72Single correctSolutions / Thermodynamics

Consider the following liquid

-

vapour equilibrium.
Liquid

⇌

Vapour
Which of the following relations is correct?

(1)

\frac{d ln G}{d T ^{2}} = \frac{Δ H _{v}}{R T ^{2}}

(2)

\frac{d ln P}{d T} = \frac{- Δ H _{v}}{RT}

(3)

\frac{d ln P}{d T ^{2}} = \frac{- Δ H _{v}}{T ^{2}}

(4)

\frac{d ln P}{d T} = \frac{Δ H _{v}}{R T ^{2}}

Q73Single correctThe p-Block Elements / Chemical Bonding

Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. Code:

Column I	Column II
a. $XeF_{6}$	i. distorted octahedral
b. $XeO_{3}$	ii. square planar
c. $XeOF_{4}$	iii. pyramidal
d. $XeF_{4}$	iv. square pyramidal

(1)

(a)(i) (b)(iii) (c)(iv) (d)(ii)

(2)

(a)(i) (b)(ii) (c)(iv) (d)(iii)

(3)

(a)(iv) (b)(ii) (c)(i) (d)(ii)

(4)

(a)(iv) (b)(i) (c)(ii) (d)(iii)

Q74Single correctCoordination Compounds / d- and f-Block Elements

Which of the following has longest

C - O

bond length? (Free

C - O

bond length in CO is

1.28 \overset{˚}{A}

(1)

Ni(CO)_{4}

(2)

[Co(CO)_{4}]^{-}

(3)

[Fe(CO)_{4}]^{2 -}

(4)

[Mn(CO)_{6}]^{+}

Q75Single correctElectrochemistry

The pressure of

H_{2}

required to make the potential of

H_{2}

-

electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:

(1)

1 0^{- 14}

atm

(2)

1 0^{- 12}

atm

(3)

1 0^{- 10}

atm

(4)

1 0^{- 4}

atm

Q76Single correctChemical Kinetics

The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?

(1)

Entropy

(2)

Internal Energy

(3)

Enthalpy

(4)

Activation Energy

Q77Single correctThe Solid State

The ionic radii of

A^{+}

and

B^{-}

ions are

0.98 \times 1 0^{- 10}

m and

1.81 \times 1 0^{- 10}

m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q78Single correctThe p-Block Elements

Which is the correct statement for the given acids?

(1)

Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while Phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.

(2)

Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while Phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.

(3)

Both are triprotic acids.

(4)

Both are diprotic acids.

Q79Single correctSurface Chemistry

Fog is colloidal solution of:

(1)

Liquid in gas

(2)

Gas in liquid

(3)

Solid in gas

(4)

Gas in gas

Q80Single correctSolutions

Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at

25°

C. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at

25°

C, benzene

= 12.8

kPa, toluene

= 3.85

kPa

(1)

The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.

(2)

The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.

(3)

The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.

(4)

Not enough information is given to make a prediction.

Q81Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles / Hydrocarbons

The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:

(1)

The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.

(2)

The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.

(3)

The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.

(4)

The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.

Q82Single correctAlcohols, Phenols and Ethers / Haloalkanes

The reaction shown below can be classified as:

A two-step scheme. Cyclopentanol, drawn as a cyclopentane ring bearing OH, reacts with NaH to give the cyclopentoxide ion drawn as the ring bearing O with a negative charge alongside a sodium cation. That alkoxide then reacts with Me-I to give the ring bearing an O-Me group.

(1)

Williamson ether synthesis reaction

(2)

Alcohol formation reaction

(3)

Dehydration reaction

(4)

Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction

Q83Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids / Amines

The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:

(1)

Schiff base

(2)

Ketone

(3)

Carboxylic acid

(4)

Aromatic acid

Q84Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles

Which of the following biphenyl is optically active?

(1)

A biphenyl carrying a nitro group at the 3-position of one ring and an iodine at the 3'-position of the other ring. Both ortho positions of each ring are unsubstituted.

Nitro- and iodo-substituted biphenyl

(2)

A biphenyl carrying bromine at the 2- and 2'-positions and iodine at the 6- and 6'-positions, so all four ortho positions are substituted and the two substituents on each ring differ from each other.

Dibromo- and diiodo-substituted biphenyl

(3)

A biphenyl carrying an iodine at the 2-position of one ring and at the 2'-position of the other, leaving the remaining two ortho positions unsubstituted.

Diiodo-substituted biphenyl

(4)

A biphenyl carrying methyl groups at the 2- and 6-positions of one ring only; the second ring is unsubstituted.

Dimethyl-substituted biphenyl

Q85Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes / Hydrocarbons

For the following reactions:
(a)

CH_{3} CH_{2} CH_{2} Br + KOH \to CH_{3} CH = CH_{2} + KBr + H_{2} O

Reactions (b) and (c) are shown below, in that order.
Which of the following statements is correct?

Two reaction schemes, one above the other. The upper one, reaction (b), shows 2-bromopropane, drawn as a carbon bearing two methyl groups and a Br, reacting with KOH to give propan-2-ol, the same skeleton bearing OH, plus KBr. The lower one, labelled (c), shows cyclohexene reacting with Br2 to give cyclohexane bearing Br on two adjacent carbons.

(1)

(a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.

(2)

(a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.

(3)

(a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.

(4)

(a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.

Q86Single correctSolutions

100°

C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If

K_{b} = 0.52

, the boiling point of this solution will be:

(1)

101°

(2)

100°

(3)

102°

(4)

103°

Q87Single correctBiomolecules

The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is:

(1)

The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'- deoxyribose.

(2)

The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'- deoxyribose.

(3)

The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose.

(4)

The sugar component in RNA is 2'- deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.

Q88Single correctAmines / Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles

The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is:

(1)

Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring

π

electron system.

(2)

Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring

π

electron system.

(3)

Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.

(4)

Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized.

Q89Single correctBiomolecules

Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?

(1)

Maltose

(2)

Lactose

(3)

Glucose

(4)

Sucrose

Q90Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles

The pair of electron in the given carbanion,

CH_{3} - C \equiv C^{⊖}

, is present in which of the following orbitals?

(1)

2 p

(2)

s p^{3}

(3)

s p^{2}

(4)

s p

Biology90 questions

Q91Single correctOrganisms and Populations

Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:

(1)

More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.

(2)

Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.

(3)

No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.

(4)

Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.

Q92Single correctBiomolecules

The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:

(1)

Hydrogen bonds

(2)

Phosphodiester bond

(3)

Covalent bond

(4)

Disulphide bridges

Q93Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

The coconut water from tender coconut represents:

(1)

Endocarp

(2)

Fleshy mesocarp

(3)

Free nuclear proembryo

(4)

Free nuclear endosperm

Q94Single correctBiological Classification

Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

(1)

They lack a protein coat

(2)

They are smaller than viruses

(3)

They cause infections

(4)

Their RNA is of high molecular weight

Q95Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda?

(1)

Chitinous exoskeleton

(2)

Metameric segmentation

(3)

Parapodia

(4)

Jointed appendages

Q96Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

(1)

Recessive gene disorder

(2)

X-linked recessive gene disorder

(3)

Chromosomal disorder

(4)

Dominant gene disorder

Q97Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:

(1)

Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

(2)

Two photosystems operating simultaneously

(3)

Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport

(4)

Oxidative phosphorylation

Q98Single correctMineral Nutrition

In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

(1)

Boron, zinc, manganese

(2)

Iron, copper, molybdenum

(3)

Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese

(4)

Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus

Q99Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

(1)

Emphysema

(2)

Asthma

(3)

Respiratory acidosis

(4)

Respiratory alkalosis

Q100Single correctStrategies for Enhancement in Food Production

A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:

(1)

Ley farming

(2)

Contour farming

(3)

Strip farming

(4)

Shifting agriculture

Q101Single correctCell - The Unit of Life

Mitochondria and chloroplast are:
(a) semi-autonomous organelles.
(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.
Which one of the following options is correct?

(1)

Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(2)

(b) is true but (a) is false.

(3)

(a) is true but (b) is false.

(4)

Both (a) and (b) are false.

Q102Single correctReproductive Health

In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1)

It is usually done when a woman is between 14 - 16 weeks pregnant.

(2)

It is used for prenatal sex determination.

(3)

It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.

(4)

It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.

Q103Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in

(1)

Stroma

(2)

Lumen of thylakoids

(3)

Inter membrane space

(4)

Antennae complex

Q104Single correctNeural Control and Coordination

Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of :

(1)

Guanosine and Retinol

(2)

Opsin and Retinal

(3)

Opsin and Retinol

(4)

Transducin and Retinene

Q105Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Spindle fibres attach on to:

(1)

Telomere of the chromosome

(2)

Kinetochore of the chromosome

(3)

Centromere of the chromosome

(4)

Kinetosome of the chromosome

Q106Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

(1)

Gangetic shark

(2)

River dolphin

(3)

Blue whale

(4)

Sea - horse

Q107Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?

(1)

glucose

(2)

galactose

(3)

lactose

(4)

lactose and galactose

Q108Single correctChemical Coordination and Integration

Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?

(1)

Parathormone - Calcitonin

(2)

Insulin - Glucagon

(3)

Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor

(4)

Relaxin - Inhibin

Q109Single correctCell - The Unit of Life

Microtubules are the constituents of:

(1)

Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

(2)

Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia

(3)

Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin

(4)

Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles

Q110Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:

(1)

Polysome

(2)

Polymer

(3)

Polypeptide

(4)

Okazaki fragment

Q111Single correctHuman Reproduction

Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

(1)

the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.

(2)

the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

(3)

the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix.

(4)

the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.

Q112Single correctBreathing and Exchange of Gases

Asthma may be attributed to:

(1)

bacterial infection of the lungs

(2)

allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

(3)

inflammation of the trachea

(4)

accumulation of fluid in the lungs

Q113Single correctPlant Growth and Development

The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:

(1)

ABA

(2)

A_{3}

(3)

IAA

(4)

Ethylene

Q114Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:

(1)

Carina

(2)

Pappus

(3)

Vexillum

(4)

Corona

Q115Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

(1)

Liliaceae

(2)

Solanaceae

(3)

Fabaceae

(4)

Poaceae

Q116Single correctBiological Classification

One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :

(1)

Chitin

(2)

Peptidoglycan

(3)

Cellulose

(4)

Hemicellulose

Q117Single correctHuman Reproduction

Select the incorrect statement :

(1)

FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.

(2)

LH triggers ovulation in ovary.

(3)

LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.

(4)

LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.

Q118Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:

(1)

Pachytene

(2)

Leptotene

(3)

Zygotene

(4)

Diplotene

Q119Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the

F_{1}

plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:

(1)

1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf

(2)

1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf

(3)

3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf

(4)

3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall

Q120Single correctBiodiversity and Conservation

Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?

(1)

Over - exploitation

(2)

Alien species invasion

(3)

Habitat loss and fragmentation

(4)

Co-extinctions

Q121Single correctEcosystem

Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?

(1)

Absence of soil organisms

(2)

Least genetic diversity

(3)

Absence of weeds

(4)

Ecological succession

Q122Single correctHuman Reproduction

Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:

(1)

estrogen and progesterone

(2)

estrogen and inhibin

(3)

progesterone only

(4)

progesterone and inhibin

Q123Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?

(1)

Independent replication

(2)

Circular structure

(3)

Transferable

(4)

Single-stranded

Q124Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta\ americana?

(1)

Schizocoelom as body cavity

(2)

Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development

(3)

Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine

(4)

Metamerically segmented body

Q125Single correctHuman Health and Disease

In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:

(1)

Allergic response

(2)

Graft rejection

(3)

Auto-immune disease

(4)

Active immunity

Q126Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Match Column I with Column II

Column I	Column II
(a). Dominance	(i). Many genes govern a single character
(b). Codominance	(ii). In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself
(c). Pleiotropy	(iii). In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully
(d). Polygenic inheritance	(iv). A single gene influences many characters

(1)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(2)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(4)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Q127Single correctEnvironmental Issues

Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:

(1)

1960s

(2)

1970s

(3)

1980s

(4)

1990s

Q128Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

Pick out the correct statements:
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.

(1)

(a) and (d) are correct.

(2)

(b) and (d) are correct.

(3)

(a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4)

(a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Q129Single correctBiological Classification

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1)

Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

(2)

Golden algae are also called desmids.

(3)

Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.

(4)

Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.

Q130Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:

(1)

Anther

(2)

Connective

(3)

Placenta

(4)

Thalamus or petal

Q131Single correctReproductive Health

Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

(1)

Barrier methods - prevent fertilization

(2)

Intra uterine devices - increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms

(3)

Hormonal contraceptives - Prevent/ retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization

(4)

Vasectomy - prevents spermatogenesis

Q132Single correctBiotechnology - Principles and Processes

The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

(1)

Thermus\ aquaticus

(2)

Thiobacillus\ ferroxidans

(3)

Bacillus\ subtilis

(4)

Pseudomonas\ putida

Q133Single correctHuman Reproduction

Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin':

(1)

Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.

(2)

Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.

(3)

Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.

(4)

Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.

Q134Single correctBiotechnology and its Applications

Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne\ incognita?

(1)

Flower

(2)

Leaf

(3)

Stem

(4)

Root

Q135Single correctHuman Health and Disease

Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:

(1)

Activated pathogens

(2)

Harvested antibodies

(3)

Gamma globulin

(4)

Attenuated pathogens

Q136Single correctCell: The Unit of Life

Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?

(1)

Mitochondria

(2)

Chloroplasts

(3)

Lysosomes

(4)

Nuclei

Q137Single correctLocomotion and Movement

Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:

(1)

Spasm

(2)

Fatigue

(3)

Tetanus

(4)

Tonus

Q138Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Which of the following is not a stem modification?

(1)

Pitcher of

Nepenthes

(2)

Thorns of citrus

(3)

Tendrils of cucumber

(4)

Flattened structures of

Opuntia

Q139Single correctCell: The Unit of Life

Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

(1)

Xanthophylls

(2)

Chlorophylls

(3)

Carotenoids

(4)

Anthocyanins

Q140Single correctPlant Kingdom

Select the correct statement:

(1)

Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

(2)

Salvinia

Ginkgo

and

Pinus

all are gymnosperms

(3)

Sequoia

is one of the tallest trees

(4)

The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate

Q141Single correctBiotechnology: Principles and Processes

Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?

(1)

Polymerase chain reaction

(2)

Zinc finger analysis

(3)

Restriction enzymes

(4)

DNA-DNA hybridization

Q142Single correctStructural Organisation in Animals

Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?

(1)

Smooth muscle — Wall of intestine

(2)

Areolar tissue — Tendons

(3)

Transitional epithelium — Tip of nose

(4)

Cuboidal epithelium — Lining of stomach

Q143Single correctPhotosynthesis in Higher Plants

A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?

(1)

C_{3}

(2)

C_{4}

(3)

CAM

(4)

Nitrogen fixer

Q144Single correctEvolution

Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?

(1)

Dorsal fin of a Shark

(2)

Wing of a Moth

(3)

Hind limb of Rabbit

(4)

Flipper of Whale

Q145Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?

(1)

Cartilaginous endoskeleton — Chondrichthyes

(2)

Viviparous — Mammalia

(3)

Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw — Chordata

(4)

3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle — Reptilia

Q146Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

(1)

Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.

(2)

Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.

(3)

Mutations inactivate the cell control.

(4)

Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.

Q147Single correctChemical Coordination and Integration

The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :

(1)

Melatonin and Serotonin

(2)

Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine

(3)

Estrogen and Progesterone

(4)

Cortisol and Cortisone

Q148Single correctOrigin and Evolution of Life

Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?

(1)

(a) is correct but (b) is false.

(2)

(b) is correct but (a) is false.

(3)

Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(4)

Both (a) and (b) are false.

Q149Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

Reduction in pH of blood will:

(1)

reduce the rate of heart beat.

(2)

reduce the blood supply to the brain.

(3)

decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.

(4)

release bicarbonate ions by the liver.

Q150Single correctEvolution

Analogous structures are a result of:

(1)

Divergent evolution

(2)

Convergent evolution

(3)

Shared ancestry

(4)

Stabilizing selection

Q151Single correctBiotechnology: Principles and Processes

Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

(1)

Hind II

(2)

Protease

(3)

DNase I

(4)

RNase

Q152Single correctEcosystem

The term ecosystem was coined by:

(1)

E.P. Odum

(2)

A.G. Tansley

(3)

E. Haeckel

(4)

E. Warming

Q153Single correctBiomolecules

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1)

Sucrose is a disaccharide.

(2)

Cellulose is a polysaccharide.

(3)

Uracil is a pyrimidine.

(4)

Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.

Q154Single correctPlant Kingdom

In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:

(1)

Wind

(2)

Insects

(3)

Birds

(4)

Water

Q155Single correctOrganisms and Populations

When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as

d N / d t = r N (1 - N / K)

(1)

when N/K is exactly one.

(2)

when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.

(3)

when N/K equals zero.

(4)

when death rate is greater than birth rate.

Q156Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Which one of the following statements is not true?

(1)

Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

(2)

Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin

(3)

Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies

(4)

Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes

Q157Single correctEcosystem

Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?

(1)

Lichens

(2)

Liverworts

(3)

Mosses

(4)

Green algae

Q158Single correctMolecular Basis of Inheritance

Which one of the following is the starter codon?

(1)

AUG

(2)

UGA

(3)

UAA

(4)

UAG

Q159Single correctAnimal Kingdom

Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?

(1)

Ossified endoskeleton

(2)

Breathing using lungs

(3)

Viviparity

(4)

Warm blooded nature

Q160Single correctBiological Classification

Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules.
Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

(1)

Biological names can be written in any language

(2)

The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet

(3)

The names are written in Latin and are italicised

(4)

When written by hand, the names are to be underlined

Q161Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

(1)

same as that in the aorta.

(2)

more than that in the carotid.

(3)

more than that in the pulmonary vein.

(4)

less than that in the venae cavae.

Q162Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Cotyledon of maize grain is called:

(1)

plumule

(2)

coleorhiza

(3)

coleoptile

(4)

scutellum

Q163Single correctDigestion and Absorption

In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the :

(1)

gastrin secreting cells

(2)

parietal cells

(3)

peptic cells

(4)

acidic cells

Q164Single correctEnvironmental Issues

Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers?

(1)

Nitrous oxide

(2)

Ozone

(3)

Ammonia

(4)

Methane

Q165Single correctBiological Classification

Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:

(1)

Monera

(2)

Protista

(3)

Fungi

(4)

Animalia

Q166Single correctTransport in Plants

Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options:

(1)

Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.

(2)

Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and C

O_{2}

is different.

(3)

The above processes happen only during night time.

(4)

One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.

Q167Single correctBody Fluids and Circulation

In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?

(1)

Renal Vein

(2)

Dorsal Aorta

(3)

Hepatic Vein

(4)

Hepatic Portal Vein

Q168Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:

(1)

Sporulation

(2)

Budding

(3)

Somatic hybridization

(4)

Apomixis

Q169Single correctMicrobes in Human Welfare

Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

(1)

Trichoderma polysporum — Cyclosporin A — Immunosuppressive drug

(2)

Monascus purpureus — Statins — Lowering blood cholesterol

(3)

Streptococcus — Streptokinase — Removal of clot from blood vessel

(4)

Clostridium butylicum — Lipase — Removal of oil stains

Q170Single correctPrinciples of Inheritance and Variation

In a testcross involving

F_{1}

dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:

(1)

The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.

(2)

Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.

(3)

The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.

(4)

Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

Q171Single correctLocomotion and Movement

It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:

(1)

It is easier to carry a small body weight

(2)

Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate

(3)

Small animals have a lower

O_{2}

requirement

(4)

The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.

Q172Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?

(1)

Spindle fibres

(2)

Disappearance of nucleolus

(3)

Chromosome movement

(4)

Synapsis

Q173Single correctSexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1)

pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.

(2)

Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers.

(3)

Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.

(4)

Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.

Q174Single correctAnatomy of Flowering Plants

Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:

(1)

Complementary cells

(2)

Subsidiary cells

(3)

Bulliform cells

(4)

Lenticels

Q175Single correctDigestion and Absorption

Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?

(1)

Semilunar valve

(2)

Ileocaecal valve

(3)

Pyloric sphincter

(4)

Sphincter of Oddi

Q176Single correctMorphology of Flowering Plants

Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:

(1)

Cladodes

(2)

Phyllodes

(3)

Phylloclades

(4)

Scales

Q177Single correctMicrobes in Human Welfare

The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include:

(1)

Halophiles

(2)

Thermoacidophiles

(3)

Methanogens

(4)

Eubacteria

Q178Single correctEnvironmental Issues

A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:

(1)

Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.

(2)

Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.

(3)

An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.

(4)

Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.

Q179Single correctCell Cycle and Cell Division

A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:

(1)

Aneuploidy

(2)

Polyploidy

(3)

Somaclonal variation

(4)

Polyteny

Q180Single correctBiomolecules

A typical fat molecule is made up of:

(1)

Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

(2)

One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

(3)

One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule

(4)

Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

More NEET 2016 papers

NEET 2016 — Jul 24

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